Need solid Help with scripture

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Can anyone help with this? I am speaking to an ex-mormon who is Athiest. I am trying to help him. Thought I could answer his questions, but not on this one.

Regarding Hosea 11:1 and then Matthew 2:15

“Rich, you admit that the son called out of Egypt is Israel. That’s good! But you have offered nothing that explains Matthew’s claim that the son called out of Egypt is Jesus. After years of looking for an explanation from the Christian perspective, the only reasonable explanation for the discrepancy seems to be that Matthew was intentionally lying about what the scripture really means.

By the way, Matthew lies about other scriptures too – the Hosea one is not an isolated example – but let’s stick with the Hosea one for now.”

Anyone help here?
 
The reference to Hosea is to the basic experience of salvation. In the Hosea prophecy, the ‘son’ is Israel. Matthew applies this prophecy to Jesus, who represents the beginning of the restoration of Israel. Matthew is speaking to a Jewish audience, so he uses Moses’ traditions. Jesus is shown to be the new Moses in Matthew’s Gospel. Jesus will lead the new exodus for the ‘spiritual’ exile of the Jews.

Jesus started His ministry in the tribal areas of Zebulun and Naphtali, because this was the first region to be carried off into exile by the Assyrains. During the time of Jesus, the Jews were in a spiritual exile. In 2nd Isaiah, the prophet’s new theology was to include the gentles to the Kingdom of God. The nation of Israel would be the instrument of God for the gentiles salvation. But first, the lost tribes of Israel must come to know God again and keep His covenant.

I hope that helps. Let me know if you need more interpratation 😃
 
Thank you Deacon Joseph. The attempt to shatter the New Testament is growing as I have found out. Its all over the Internet. Nothing is new under the sun and I know this argument is very Old, at least as Old as 2000 years. Thank you so much. Baptized 8 years ago in Logan because the truth of this faith is mind boggling to me. I have a simple mind, not real educated in theology but my fire for Christ has not ceased. I help with the RCIA and selfishly love to see the LDS here in Utah find the real Christ. Never though I would ever be in it as it was the last place I would have ever looked as I do have a Mormon background.

The site I am at is www.postmormon.org. I at least have been able to be there on their forum long enough to get them to some Catholic sites such as www.utahmission.com here in Logan Utah and www.catholiconline and such. So many souls go to his site but do not post. They are looking and searching. It is his challenge that is keeping me from being taken off this forum. This Jeff Ricks was a former Mormon here in Northern Utah. His Atheism is pulling in Mormons who have lost their own faith and our searching. I know he is having a spiritual battle and these side issues are a result of Him justifying leaving his Mormon faith and losing his wife. But as you and I both know he is also searching for the hope that we have found. . I am trying to get him to look deeper into his own personal battle and help him find the Cross where it has already ended for all of us.

Here is the posting, look at the views. And you can see in that number those that you have just helped and me as well for Christ. He will not accept your answer but it will be planted. Maybe if you can think of some Scripture that might help here let me know.

He has already responded here at this link. Just checked. I have to run to work.

postmormon.org/exp_e/index.php/discussions/viewthread/1862/P80/

God Bless you friend!!
Rich
www.utahmission.com
 
After years of looking for an explanation from the Christian perspective, the only reasonable explanation for the discrepancy seems to be that Matthew was intentionally lying about what the scripture really means.

By the way, Matthew lies about other scriptures too – the Hosea one is not an isolated example – but let’s stick with the Hosea one for now.”
The Catechism of the Catholic Church (115-119) briefly describes “The senses of Scripture,” link.

The literal sense of the scripture passage from Hosea is Israel. The spiritual sense of the passage is Jesus Christ.
 
Jesus spent part of his infancy in Egypt. Remember? Herod. The slaughter of the innocents. Matthew mentions that. What am I not getting about this question. Hosea says “Israel” – Jesus IS Israel. And he sojourned in Egypt. So the literal sense is, well, literal.

What’s the “lie” Matthew is supposed to be mounting?
 
Jesus spent part of his infancy in Egypt. Remember? Herod. The slaughter of the innocents. Matthew mentions that. What am I not getting about this question. Hosea says “Israel” – Jesus IS Israel. And he sojourned in Egypt. So the literal sense is, well, literal.

What’s the “lie” Matthew is supposed to be mounting?
I agree, I dont understand what is wrong here at all. Jesus did come out of Egypt when his family fled there. Further coming out of Egypt actually foreshadows fallen man leaving their old life and heading towards the Promised Land (Heaven).
 
Can anyone help with this? I am speaking to an ex-mormon who is Athiest. I am trying to help him. Thought I could answer his questions, but not on this one.

Regarding Hosea 11:1 and then Matthew 2:15

“Rich, you admit that the son called out of Egypt is Israel. That’s good! But you have offered nothing that explains Matthew’s claim that the son called out of Egypt is Jesus. After years of looking for an explanation from the Christian perspective, the only reasonable explanation for the discrepancy seems to be that Matthew was intentionally lying about what the scripture really means.

By the way, Matthew lies about other scriptures too – the Hosea one is not an isolated example – but let’s stick with the Hosea one for now.”

Anyone help here?

Look at how Matthew presents Jesus - not just there, but throughout that gospel.​

Matthew has a variety of means to describe Jesus - as
  • Israel
  • Moses
  • David
  • Solomon
  • among others.
When Matthew uses that passage from Hosea to describe Jesus, what he is saying is that Jesus is, does, completes, what Hosea says in those passages: which must be read in context.

The problem with many atheist objections to the Bible - including this one - is their lack of intelligence. They are Fundamentalist ideas, a Fundamentalism that seeks to destroy faith rather than to build it up - that doesn’t make them any less Fundamentalist.

Matthew is not lying - his point is far more subtle, & far more intelligent than the objection allows for 🙂

To understand what Matthew is saying, we need to ask why he says something that, on the face of it, looks untrue. That means asking "Why does Matthew relate this:
  • Hosea 11:1 When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.
  • Hsa 11:2 The more I called them, the more they went from me; they kept sacrificing to the Ba’als, and burning incense to idols
    to this ? What relation does he see between them?
  • Mat 2:13 Now when they had departed, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and said, “Rise, take the child and his mother, and flee to Egypt, and remain there till I tell you; for Herod is about to search for the child, to destroy him.”
  • Mat 2:14 And he rose and took the child and his mother by night, and departed to Egypt,
  • Mat 2:15 and remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfil what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, “Out of Egypt have I called my son.”
  1. Israel is the son of God - so is Jesus.
  2. By establishing that Jesus is God’s son, Matthew prepares the reader for the public recognition of Jesus as son of God at His Baptism
  3. Verse 13 prepares for verse 15 - because what was intended to happen to Jesus, happened to the Israelite children: Herod is seen as a new Pharaoh
  4. Moses fled for his life - so here too, Jesus is saved by flight: an early hint that Jesus is a Moses-figure
  5. He is “God with” the oppressed - as in the OT; as in Exodus 3
Hosea 11.2 is not at first glance like Jesus at all 🙂 - but, Jesus fulfils that description, not only by being Israel personified, but also, by doing what Israel failed to do: Israel in the desert, & later, followed idols. Jesus, by contrast, was everything that Israel was not, that Israel failed to be & do: it is in that sense that He “fulfils” what is said in that verse.

Fulfilment, as the word is used in the Greek, is a matter not just of matching event A to prophetic text B - fulfilment works in other ways too; such as completing what others (in this case, Israel as a people), failed to do.

So Jesus is far more rightly described as God’s son than the People of Israel was - He behaves as a son should, as well as having the status of a son.

Hope that helps.
 
Hello Rich,
Glad I could help you. I had some time to read your discussion on postmormon. Your friend Jeff needs to understand the basics of theology and how the Bible is written. The Bible can not be understood by reading one verse at a time.

He is right when he quotes the OT, that Israel is God’s firstborn. What he needs to understand is the Jesus is both man and God, part of the Holy Trinity which is a very complex topic. Jesus is not the firstborn son of God, He is part of the Holy Trinity. Israel means ‘Struggles with God’. Jacob is given a new name, Israel, after he has his dream in the Book of Genesis. The prophet Isaiah’s theology is that Israel is to be the priestly nation, the light for all the nations. I have to go now, but I will read more of the posts and give you some more interpertation.

God Bless, friend 👍
 
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