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Mike_Olson
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So if Nero Cesar was the Anti-Christ what does mean to the book of Revelation? I mean if the Anti-Christ was him has “end time” prophecy been fulfilled? Has this all taken place during the Roman Empire?
How’s this…So if Nero Cesar was the Anti-Christ what does mean to the book of Revelation? I mean if the Anti-Christ was him has “end time” prophecy been fulfilled? Has this all taken place during the Roman Empire?
Let me recommend some resources, in ascending order of depth and thoroughness:Thanks for the replies! Revelation has always confounded me. More comments would be welcome.![]()
What he said!Revelation has an immediate meaning which has been fulfilled, otherwise it would have meant nothing to the early Christians. It primarily refers to the time surrounding the destruction of Jerusalem and the persecution of Christians under Nero and possibly Domitian. The first and literal meaning of Revelation is the promise that God will triumph over the pagan Roman Empire, already having judged apostate Jerusalem. It describes end-times, but for early Christians, the end-times was the destruction of the Temple, signifying the definitive passing of the Old Law.
Of course, it has eschatological meaning, which says that all the first-century signs signify the final triumph of Christ and the Church, and so we are open to meaning of some great events in the future.
The Church has never required anyone to take Revelation 100% literally.
See The Lamb’s Supper by Scott Hahn for more details.
I just posted this in another thread. Its an extract and I have to say I have not read the whole document.Nero was a foreshadowing of the Antichrist. St. Thomas held that the Antichrist was one person who would be born and take power in a future time.
The above quote is from Joseph Ratzinger’s private theology, so it is not an act of the Magisterium. Also, the expression ‘cannot be restricted to any single individual’ does not assert that there will never be a single individual who is properly called the Antichrist, but merely asserts that the concept applies also to those who foreshadow the Antichrist and to sins that prepare for his arrival, such as the sin of denying Christ.I just posted this in another thread. Its an extract and I have to say I have not read the whole document.
“As far as the antichrist is concerned, we have seen that in the New Testament he always assumes the lineaments of contemporary history. He cannot be restricted to any single individual. One and the same he wears many masks in each generation.” —Cardinal Ratzinger (POPE BENEDICT XVI), Dogmatic Theology, Eschatology 9, Johann Auer and Joseph Ratzinger, 1988, p. 199-200
It is similair to the fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14.So if Nero Cesar was the Anti-Christ what does mean to the book of Revelation? I mean if the Anti-Christ was him has “end time” prophecy been fulfilled? Has this all taken place during the Roman Empire?
Thanks.The above quote is from Joseph Ratzinger’s private theology, so it is not an act of the Magisterium. Also, the expression ‘cannot be restricted to any single individual’ does not assert that there will never be a single individual who is properly called the Antichrist, but merely asserts that the concept applies also to those who foreshadow the Antichrist and to sins that prepare for his arrival, such as the sin of denying Christ.
This talk by the Pope speaks of the Antichrist as one individual:
zenit.org/article-24235?l=english
The rest of this text announces that before the arrival of the Lord, there will be the apostasy and the revelation of the no better defined “wicked one,” the “son of perdition” (2:3), which tradition will later call the Antichrist.
Mentions of him in Daniel, Thessalonians, the Epistles of John, and indeed the Revelation of John. Church history has always identified this person as the Antichrist.Where (if anywhere) in scripture does it say that “anti-christ” was one identifiable and particular man who would show up in history?
Wisdom is needed here; one who understands can calculate the number of the beast, for it is a number that stands for a person. His number is six hundred and sixty-six.Where (if anywhere) in scripture does it say that “anti-christ” was one identifiable and particular man who would show up in history?
Thanks; but I was asking about the anti-christ and whether the bible mentions it as one particular and identifiable person.Wisdom is needed here; one who understands can calculate the number of the beast, for it is a number that stands for a person. His number is six hundred and sixty-six.
(Rev 13:18)