S
slMike
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Originally Posted by JB Brother 4446
Also the original text for John 18 has Jesus say,“I AM”. But the NIV has him say “I am he.”
Good observation considering the context where in the next verse it says:This paraphase actually dimishes what Jesus said when he made that statement.
Joh 18:6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground.
They were obviously affected by His divinity
Most translations seem to use “I am** he**” including the DRV. I like the DRV but the KJV that I use adds “he” in italics indicating it was inserted by the translators which seems fair to the text.
The Greek has only I (egō) am (eimi) as well as the old Vulgate: “Ego sum”.
Mike