New International Version

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Originally Posted by JB Brother 4446
Also the original text for John 18 has Jesus say,“I AM”. But the NIV has him say “I am he.”
This paraphase actually dimishes what Jesus said when he made that statement.
Good observation considering the context where in the next verse it says:

Joh 18:6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground.

They were obviously affected by His divinity

Most translations seem to use “I am** he**” including the DRV. I like the DRV but the KJV that I use adds “he” in italics indicating it was inserted by the translators which seems fair to the text.

The Greek has only I (egō) am (eimi) as well as the old Vulgate: “Ego sum”.

Mike
 
Luther was a man

His reformation, 95 theses, and five solas were the resulting traditions

Luther, removing the seven books by his own authority, is another.

Further traditions of men include altar calls, invisible church, the 30,000 denominations, once saved always saved, and many others which stem from the reformation.
So much wrong with this post …
  1. The three Solas teaching is found in the church fathers
  2. Luthers canon had 74 books
  3. 30,000 denominations is a myth is a myth used by RC apologists , and has no basis in fact
  4. The idea that the church is both visible and invisible also can be found in the fathers
  5. The 95 theses were discussion points meant to correct error
Anyway, the niv is a pretty good translation, is a dynamic equivalence one so its thought for thought ,but I hope they put the deuterocanonical books in it , the Esv is ok as well.
 
New Bible draws critics of gender-neutral language

The Associated Press Thursday, March 17, 2011

NASHVILLE, Tenn. – In the old translation of the world’s most popular Bible, John the Evangelist declares: “If anyone says, ‘I love God,’ yet hates his brother, he is a liar.” Make that “brother or sister” in a new translation that includes more gender-neutral language and is drawing criticism from some conservatives who argue the changes can alter the theological message.

The 2011 translation of the New International Version Bible, or NIV, does not change pronouns referring to God, who remains “He” and “the Father.” But it does aim to avoid using “he” or “him” as the default reference to an unspecified person.

The NIV Bible is used by many of the largest Protestant faiths. The translation comes from an independent group of biblical scholars that has been meeting yearly since 1965 to discuss advances in biblical scholarship and changes in English usage.

washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2011/03/17/AR2011031703434.html

Gender neutral? Forget it.
 
So much wrong with this post …
  1. The three Solas teaching is found in the church fathers
  2. Luthers canon had 74 books
  3. 30,000 denominations is a myth is a myth used by RC apologists , and has no basis in fact
  4. The idea that the church is both visible and invisible also can be found in the fathers
  5. The 95 theses were discussion points meant to correct error
Anyway, the niv is a pretty good translation, is a dynamic equivalence one so its thought for thought ,but I hope they put the deuterocanonical books in it , the Esv is ok as well.
They are? Which church father exactly? Besides, what happened to sola scriptura??

30,000 denominations is a myth? No, only if you exclude all the subcategories. For example, there’s the baptist church at a high level, then there’s the southern baptists, American baptists, anabaptists, etc.

Either way, there are multiple Protestant churches with conflicting doctrines. I do not see Christ making an allowance for an invisible church with denominations and conflicting doctrines

Either way, Luther was a man who created his own traditions .

Either way, he created his own canon. He absolutely did remove the Deuterocanobical books in his bible and wanted to remove James, Hebrews and Revelations.
 
They are? Which church father exactly? Besides, what happened to sola scriptura??

30,000 denominations is a myth? No, only if you exclude all the subcategories. For example, there’s the baptist church at a high level, then there’s the southern baptists, American baptists, anabaptists, etc.

Either way, there are multiple Protestant churches with conflicting doctrines. I do not see Christ making an allowance for an invisible church with denominations and conflicting doctrines

Either way, Luther was a man who created his own traditions .

Either way, he created his own canon. He absolutely did remove the Deuterocanobical books in his bible and wanted to remove James, Hebrews and Revelations.
Like I said, Luther wanted to use the Jewish canon created in Jammia in 90 C.E.
 
Like I said, Luther wanted to use the Jewish canon created in Jammia in 90 C.E.
The Jewish canon was not settled when the anti Christian rabbis decided on Roosevelt books

Luther had no such authority

Luther came to the party 1.200 years too late
 
The Jewish canon was not settled when the anti Christian rabbis decided on Roosevelt books

Luther had no such authority

Luther came to the party 1.200 years too late
I agree with all of your post except the canon book post.
 
What is the Church’s position on the NIV translation ? I remember reading on Wikipedia once that one of the main motivations for that translation was countering Catholic teachings on Our Lady. There is now no mention of this on that site any more though. The Catholic New Jerome Biblical Commentary does not seem to criticise the NIV. I own a copy of the NIV which was given to me by the Gideon Society when I was at school but I no longer use it. My mom also has a copy and I have encouraged her not to use it because I am dubious as to whether it is friendly to Our Lady and perhaps Catholicism in general. I would be grateful if anyone can shed any light.
Hi!

The two most glaring problems that I’m aware of are (1) in Jeremiah where their addition of the word “just” reverses the meaning to make the text say that God does something, when the actual text says that He didn’t:

“For when I brought your ancestors out of Egypt and spoke to them, I did not just give them commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices, but I gave them this command: Obey me, and I will be your God and you will be my people” (Jeremiah 7:22-23).

And (2) in 1 Corinthians 7:4 of the 1984 edition of the NIV (corrected in the 2011 edition), they have repeated occurrences of “alone” and “also” that result in there being a shared authority over each person’s body, rather than one person having authority over the other person’s body (the wife over the husband’s, and the husband over the wife’s):

“The wife’s body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband’s body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife” (1 Corinthians 7:4).

Have a blessed day!

In Christ,
Pete
 
What is the Church’s position on the NIV translation ? I remember reading on Wikipedia once that one of the main motivations for that translation was countering Catholic teachings on Our Lady. There is now no mention of this on that site any more though. The Catholic New Jerome Biblical Commentary does not seem to criticise the NIV. I own a copy of the NIV which was given to me by the Gideon Society when I was at school but I no longer use it. My mom also has a copy and I have encouraged her not to use it because I am dubious as to whether it is friendly to Our Lady and perhaps Catholicism in general. I would be grateful if anyone can shed any light.
The Bible version used at Mass is the New American

The most faithful English translation continues to be the Douay Catholic Bible:thumbsup:
 
The Bible version used at Mass is the New American

The most faithful English translation continues to be the Douay Catholic Bible:thumbsup:
I especially like the Douay Confraternity edition. :yyeess:
 
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