New Missal and the Gender-neutering controversy

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I sometimes wonder if those who started this “issue” had ever studied another language besides English. Because when you do, you quickly learn that grammatical “gender” (which is what this man/people controversy is) has nothing whatever to do with biological gender.
Unfortunately, even those in those languages feminism has reared its ugly head. Where even 15 years ago you would have seen “Société des Acadiens du Nouveau-Brunswick” and “Fédération des enseignants de l’Ontario” you now see “Société des Acadiens et Acadiennes du Nouveau-Brunswick” and “Fédération des enseignantes et des enseignants de l’Ontario”
 
WOW 👍 And to think that in these last 46 years the average Catholic has been told the universal language of Latin in the Church is dead?
Oh, it’s been longer than that. Take these remarks:
Even fifty years ago, when Harvard and Yale had fewer students than are claimed by some “small” colleges of this day, it was matter of common report that few graduates could read their diplomas and that Latin text-books had been thrust out of theological seminaries, because the niceties of syntax and not the niceties of ancient heresies engrossed the students’ attention.
That was written in 1910. (The entire article is quite interesting.) Latin is certainly useful for certain functionary documents issued by various offices of the Church though, and it’s good that the Church is regularly updating and modernizing the language to keep pace with our changing world.
 
Oh dear, Joan. I have little opinion on this. I am very happy to leave these decisions to the episcopacy, but I have to speak up here because you are a victim of the “big lie”. “Men” and “mankind” have in no way shape or form always been considered gender inclusive. For evidence of this we need look no farther than the date that women earned the right to vote in the US: August 26, 1920 … That’s right. “All *men *are created equal” did not include women because the word “men” only recently came to mean both. Why should it have? (BTW - Blacks couldn’t vote because they weren’t considered “men” either - but that’s an even uglier can of worms.)
Aside from the other remarks, I’ll make one that occurred to me. In the past, the man (as head of the family, which someone else stated) would make the vote. That vote was for the family. The right for women to vote is a means of separating the votes of families into those of individuals. So much for unity in the family!

I always wonder why the feminists don’t try to get into the hair club for men? 😃
 
From wiktionary, the etymology of “man”:

“From Middle English, from Old English mann (“human being, person, man”), from Proto-Germanic *mannaz (“human being, man”), from Proto-Indo-European *man- (“man”). Cognate with West Frisian and Dutch man (“man”), German Mann (“man”), Norwegian mann (“man”), Russian муж (muž, “male person”), Avestan (manuš), Sanskrit (mánuṣ, “human being”)).”
Not only does German have the noun “Mann” (which is both a universal and a specific noun), it also has the noun “Mensch” (which is a specific noun). English suffers from having one word “man” doing double-duty.
 
The First Miracle, “The Feeding of the 5,000” is the only miracle (apart from the resurrection) which is present in all four canonical Gospels (Matthew 14:13–21, Mark 6:31-44, Luke 9:10-17 and John 6:5-15
Matthew 14:21 And those who ate were about 5,000 men, not including women and children.
Taken alone, one might find this an indication that the qualification “not including women and children” inherently indicates the inclusivity of “men”. But, wait; let’s look at the rest of the gospels.

Mark 6:41 And those who ate the loaves were 5,000 men.

Luke 9:14 For there were about 5,000 men.

John 6:10 Jesus said, Make all the people recline (sit down). Now the ground (a pasture) was covered with thick grass at the spot, so the men threw themselves down, about 5,000 in number.

No qualifications, no mention of the “women and children” at all. What does this tell us? Matthew establishes that in addition to the 5000 men, there were, in fact women and children there; 5000 men + women and children. The other gospels mentioned the men of the male gender only because, quite frankly, that’s all that mattered. Men counted, women did not. It was very generous of Matthew to mention the women and children; possibly to make it understood that there were families there as opposed to males only.

There are two major issues at hand here: the term men may include women but only as a sublimated aggregated part because where there are men, so there are women. This is inherently denigrating. If you don’t see that, try turning the genders around and see how you feel as a man: change brethren to sisters, man to woman, imagine that you are told you are considered a part of that collective “sisterhood”. Sure, you might be accepting of that, but it doesn’t settle in any kind of restful, intuitive way.

The other issue is the denigration of what it means to be “man”; if man can be man or woman. Jesus did tell us to call God “Father” and I’m absolutely certain that the references to God in the masculine throughout the Bible intend to portray Him as masculine; but now we have people stepping in saying that God is “Mother” and “she”. If you say that male pronouns are inherently gender neutral you have no ground to stand on to refute their claims.
 
If you say that male pronouns are inherently gender neutral you have no ground to stand on to refute their claims.
I think there’s a bit of problem with the linguistic terminology here. This is the way I think makes most sense:

A work like “cook (noun)” in English is *common *gender, a fancy way of saying, for the purposes of this agrument, it can be any gender, masculine or feminine.

Man can be either masculine** or **common gender.
If “man” is used for “a male person”, then it is masculine gender.
If “man” is used for “a human being”, then it is common gender.

Pax,

Sebastiano
 
I think there’s a bit of problem with the linguistic terminology here. This is the way I think makes most sense:

A work like “cook (noun)” in English is *common *gender, a fancy way of saying, for the purposes of this agrument, it can be any gender, masculine or feminine.

Man can be either masculine** or **common gender.
If “man” is used for “a male person”, then it is masculine gender.
If “man” is used for “a human being”, then it is common gender.

Pax,

Sebastiano
👍
Well deliniated.
How do we know which is which?

Sincerely - if you can answer this than all is well… (or - much better anyway).
I sometimes wonder if those who started this “issue” had ever studied another language besides English. Because when you do, you quickly learn that grammatical “gender” (which is what this man/people controversy is) has nothing whatever to do with biological gender.
Ah – finally, some reassurance I can cling to! Alas, most Americans have no clue what you are talking about. Thank You stitchwort… now I can sleep tonight with some sense that there is a good chance Paul, at least may have been intending to include women in his “brethren” address … but looking where women stand in the church, now and stood in the church then – they literally were in a separate room with curtains separating them so Paul couldn’t even have seen them (if they were following Jewish tradition still – which of, course they were); do you really believe that deep down? I’m a gonna keep trying, but it’s forced.
 
Unfortunately, even those in those languages feminism has reared its ugly head. Where even 15 years ago you would have seen “Société des Acadiens du Nouveau-Brunswick” and “Fédération des enseignants de l’Ontario” you now see “Société des Acadiens et Acadiennes du Nouveau-Brunswick” and “Fédération des enseignantes et des enseignants de l’Ontario”
Aarrgghh!

Wordy and completely unnecessary.
 
Thanks for this thread. It has made me realize how truly insidious the idea of gender inclusiveness in the words men and mankind, etc. truly is.
A. Not only does it rewrite history by giving people the false impression the women have always stood on an equal footing with men.
B. It removes the value of the word “men”. I mean we need distinct, gender specific words to identify specific genders. Otherwise, what are we to do when we truly intend men of the male gender only? If we are to rely on context to relay the message I think 33,000+ denominations speaks well to the reliability of that approach.
C. If masculine terms such as men and mankind are gender inclusive, where do we draw the line? What about “he” and “his”? What’s to prevent us from, even just on a subconscious level, making Father = Mother?
Below are linked a few articles on the subject of “inclusive language.”

A term like “man” in English has always had a primarily generic meaning to identify any person of the human species, or sometimes the entire human species as a collective. It was really the push for “inclusive” language that actually forced people into using the term in an “exclusive” manner to refer to males only. There are no good generic substitutes, and the use of them in liturgical and biblical translations can lead to problems, as noted in the articles below.

John Donne wrote a poem titled “No Man Is An Island,” (which is also the first line.) No one, at the time of its writing or since, even today, thinks that he intended to mean “no male is an island.” No, it’s apparent that he meant, “no human person is an island.”

But that wouldn’t be good poetry, nor even good English, since a perfectly good generic term was available.

And when the lector begins a reading from St. Paul with the words “Brothers and Sisters,” is that really what Paul wrote? And if Paul really began with “brethern,” I take it for granted that he did address his words to the entire congregation of both genders, and was using the term generically.
Gentlemen – I’m not advocating gender neutralization. However, I’m afraid you are missing significant portions of history if you think for a moment that women were always included in the terms men and mankind.

John Donne – English poet: 1572-1631 This corresponds with the Elizabethan Era (1558-1603) and the Jacobian Eras (1603-1625). Both were highly repressive to women.

Education would begin at home, where children were taught the basic etiquette of proper manners and respecting others. It was necessary for boys to attend grammar school, but girls were rarely allowed in any place of education other than petty schools, and then only with a restricted curriculum. Petty schools were for all children aged from 5 to 7 years of age. Only the most wealthy people allowed their daughters to be taught, and only at home. During this time, endowed schooling became available. This meant that even boys of very poor families were able to attend school if they were not needed to work at home, but only in a few localities were funds available to provide support as well as the necessary education scholarship.
Here’s an eye-opener for you: an excerpt on “women” from the 1911 Encyclopedia Britanica.
womenshistory.about.com/library/etext/bl1911_womenf.htm
The subject is most thoroughly addressed at elizabethi.org/us/women/

Remember, women’s roles in Shakespere plays (and all plays of that era) were played by men of the male gender. Called … just … “men”.

Mr. Donne wrote no “man” is an island simply because women were not even on the radar. I assure you he fully intended the reference to mean men of the male gender. It’s fascinating that we all (now) take it to mean otherwise WITHOUT QUESTION (myself included). Don’t you find that a little … disturbing?

Here’s a little peek in Mr. Donne’s view of women. I think you’ll agree that women definitely are not “men”.
WOMAN’S CONSTANCY.
by John Donne

NOW thou hast loved me one whole day,
To-morrow when thou leavest, what wilt thou say ?
Wilt thou then antedate some new-made vow ?
Or say that now
We are not just those persons which we were ?
Or that oaths made in reverential fear
Of Love, and his wrath, any may forswear ?
Or, as true deaths true marriages untie,
So lovers’ contracts, images of those,
Bind but till sleep, death’s image, them unloose ?
Or, your own end to justify,
For having purposed change and falsehood, you
Can have no way but falsehood to be true ?
Vain lunatic, against these 'scapes I could
Dispute, and conquer, if I would ;
Which I abstain to do,
For by to-morrow I may think so too.

Collier’s encyclopedia has this to say about Mr. Donne and women:
During and after his education, Donne spent much of his considerable inheritance on women, literature, pastimes and travel.
  1. Donne, John" by Richard W. Langstaff. Article from Collier’s Encyclopedia, Volume 8. Bernard Johnston, general editor. P.F. Colliers Inc., New York: 1988. pp. 346–349.
Women were for most of Western history and still are in many societies of the world, considered very separate and very unique from “men”. A brief reading of the early church Fathers neatly demonstrates this (thank you Mr. Akin). Again, I am not advocating any side of this issue, I am very, very glad it is not up to me to decide these matters and I am … not ecstatic with either solution I see presented.

Definitely agree 100% that "INCLUSIVE LANGUAGE UNDERMINES BEAUTY, MEANING” 👍

All I’m saying is, please people, it can not be said absolutely that the term “men” “always” meant men & women. It couldn’t have, and it shouldn’t have.

-And Peace to You all -
 
👍
Well deliniated.
How do we know which is which?

Sincerely - if you can answer this than all is well… (or - much better anyway).
This is going to sound like a cop-out answer but: context.

It is a linguistic principle that words change meaning over time. I don’t want to get into an argument about homosexuality but a perfect example is the word “gay”, which has changes from “happy” to “homosexual” although it is occasionally used the old way. How can you tell what “It was a gay party” means other than the context?

Another example is a Chinese word xiang, which can mean “miss (someone)”, “want”, or “think”, or the Japanese mokusatsu (the translation, or mistranslation of famous in WWII history), which can (and I’m simplifying here) mean either “ignore” or “wisely remain inactive”. When talking about ending the war, it was said by Premier Suzuki that they would mokusatsu the Potsdam declaration. The Americans chose the meaning “ignore”.

Everything has a context.

Another way to think about it would be homophones, like scent and cent (now we’ll just pretend they were both spelled phonetically as -sent- to make a point). I could say “That’s a strong sent” meaning either “that smell is strong” or “WOW, what difference a penny can make”.

In linguistics, we have to understand meaning as an entity related to but not the same as sound. So historically, man had one meaning, over time that meaning changed, but the old meaning still remains and the only way to tell is by context [EDIT: one way in which meanings change is by either broadening or shinking their usage, such as the brand name Kleenex, to borrow Wikipedia’s example, becoming a regular noun referring to any tipe of tissue and fowl meaning what it does now for what originally meant all birds]. I hope the metaphors I gave, while not necessarily entirely accurate to this particular linguistic phenomenon, help explain the difference in meaning (each of which in English is understood to have a different gender, what we call natural gender, the gender of the meaning, rather than the grammatical gender of the noun)…

If I wasn’t clear I’d be happy to reexplain.

Pax,

Sebastiano
 
Aside from the other remarks, I’ll make one that occurred to me. In the past, the man (as head of the family, which someone else stated) would make the vote. That vote was for the family. The right for women to vote is a means of separating the votes of families into those of individuals. So much for unity in the family!

I always wonder why the feminists don’t try to get into the hair club for men? 😃
🤷 I’m confused. You’re an eeeevil feminist if you think “men” is gender exclusive AND now you are an evil feminist if you think “men” is gender inclusive. Your HC4Men remark seems off. 🤷

Anyway. SO glad you said this - I was too sick of the subject to bring it up, but since you mention it…
  1. Do you really, for a moment think all wives agree with their husbands in all matters? Even if being head of the family is all that matters, not all matters that come up for vote are family related.
  2. Not all women are married or children. What about nuns, spinsters, widows, mavericks?
I don’t think that my voting differently from my husband in certain matters creates any inherent friction between us. There would be, if his was the only vote that counted and he didn’t vote the way I thought he ought to.
 
This is going to sound like a cop-out answer but: context.

It is a linguistic principle that words change meaning over time. I don’t want to get into an argument about homosexuality but a perfect example is the word “gay”, which has changes from “happy” to “homosexual” although it is occasionally used the old way. How can you tell what “It was a gay party” means other than the context?

Another example is a Chinese word xiang, which can mean “miss (someone)”, “want”, or “think”, or the Japanese mokusatsu (the translation, or mistranslation of famous in WWII history), which can (and I’m simplifying here) mean either “ignore” or “wisely remain inactive”. When talking about ending the war, it was said by Premier Suzuki that they would mokusatsu the Potsdam declaration. The Americans chose the meaning “ignore”.

Everything has a context.

Another way to think about it would be homophones, like scent and cent (now we’ll just pretend they were both spelled phonetically as -sent- to make a point). I could say “That’s a strong sent” meaning either “that smell is strong” or “WOW, what difference a penny can make”.

In linguistics, we have to understand meaning as an entity related to but not the same as sound. So historically, man had one meaning, over time that meaning changed, but the old meaning still remains and the only way to tell is by context [EDIT: one way in which meanings change is by either broadening or shinking their usage, such as the brand name Kleenex, to borrow Wikipedia’s example, becoming a regular noun referring to any tipe of tissue and fowl meaning what it does now for what originally meant all birds]. I hope the metaphors I gave, while not necessarily entirely accurate to this particular linguistic phenomenon, help explain the difference in meaning (each of which in English is understood to have a different gender, what we call natural gender, the gender of the meaning, rather than the grammatical gender of the noun)…

If I wasn’t clear I’d be happy to reexplain.

Pax,

Sebastiano
Darn. I was hoping for more my friend. Context is so important and SO misunderstood…

Thanks… I’ll ponder this some more. Will you too? I mean, isn’t that why we’re leaving it up to educated men to clarify things a bit more?
 
English has only one word for both man (as in “male”) and humans (as in the whole species).

Latin has two separate words: vir for a male human and homo for all humans. If you go to the Latin version of the Bible (which is the basis for our liturgical translations), wherever humanity is meant, the word is homo. So as long as Latin was used and understood the distinction was obvious. And it was used as the vernacular for at least the first five hundred years of the Church, and it was understood by educated people for many more centuries. St. Augustine (died 430 AD) wrote in Latin. St. Thomas Aquinas (d. 1274) wrote in Latin.

Yes, the New Testament was originally written in Greek. And Greek also has two separate words: ἄνηρ (aner) which translates as vir or male human, and ἄνθρωπος (anthropos) which translates as homo or humankind. St. Jerome (d. ca. 420AD), who translated the Bible from the original languages into Latin, was fluent in both Greek and Latin.

Paul would have been fluent in both languages. So whichever he was speaking in his missionary journeys, it would have been clear to his audience whether he meant “male only” or “all humans.”

THERE WAS NO PROBLEM until the texts were translated into English and the two meanings had to be telescoped into one word. And English speakers were well aware of the two meanings and able to tell from the context which was meant. I do not believe we are any less intelligent than those earlier generations.
 
English has only one word for both man (as in “male”) and humans (as in the whole species).

Latin has two separate words: vir for a male human and homo for all humans. If you go to the Latin version of the Bible (which is the basis for our liturgical translations), wherever humanity is meant, the word is homo. So as long as Latin was used and understood the distinction was obvious. And it was used as the vernacular for at least the first five hundred years of the Church, and it was understood by educated people for many more centuries. St. Augustine (died 430 AD) wrote in Latin. St. Thomas Aquinas (d. 1274) wrote in Latin.

Yes, the New Testament was originally written in Greek. And Greek also has two separate words: ἄνηρ (aner) which translates as vir or male human, and ἄνθρωπος (anthropos) which translates as homo or humankind. St. Jerome (d. ca. 420AD), who translated the Bible from the original languages into Latin, was fluent in both Greek and Latin.

Paul would have been fluent in both languages. So whichever he was speaking in his missionary journeys, it would have been clear to his audience whether he meant “male only” or “all humans.”

THERE WAS NO PROBLEM until the texts were translated into English and the two meanings had to be telescoped into one word. And English speakers were well aware of the two meanings and able to tell from the context which was meant. I do not believe we are any less intelligent than those earlier generations.
Well, yes. Thanks. But it’s so much worse than that. You see, while I would like to think that all those references to how “men” should behave and “men” are loved by God etc. Please, tell me I’m wrong; but they DO refer very clearly to vir. I mean, didn’t Paul really say “brethern” of the male gender?

What are the true implications of changing that clearly masculine word to include “sisters”?

Does anyone have the right to do so?

I, deep down, like to believe that if it is coming from the authority of Holy Mother Church, then we are okay with that.

Thank you for your kind/patient responses (BTW). I’m really not trying to be a pest. This is that important.

If what you are saying is true and the earlier generations interpreted the Bible easily and clearly based on context; then, my friend, I’m afraid we all have to admit that the role of women is insubstantial. In fact, the LDS’s and the Fundamentalist Muslims got it right after all: women are worth nothing, not to be regarded at all. It really is all about God’s love for vir.

Please, please please tell me it isn’t so, Stitchwort. I’m counting on you. You could really be a Godsend for me (and others like me) that have struggled with having to force ourselves into being “men” all our lives.
 
InspiritCarol:

I am not quite sure I understand your problem. The rigid, literal reading of words such as “men” or “brethren” to always mean male persons exclusively was an artificial construct of the radical feminist movement. When I was growing up, before radical feminism reared its ugly head, the common understanding was that these words carried both meanings and you chose the one most appropriate. I have never felt in the least bit “excluded” by the words “men” or “brethren” or similar in a Biblical/liturgical context. Or in any other.

But you clearly have a problem, because you have arrived at a completely erroneous conclusion.

It is a quirk of grammar that common nouns (i.e. covering both genders) require masculine pronouns in the singular. Had English possessed a “common” pronoun, (we have “he” for male, “she” for female, and “it” for neuter, but nothing for common (like “sheep” or “people”), much grief could have been avoided. (French, by contrast, has no neuter. Everything is either masculine or feminine. And I question how much femininity my garden fence really has. :))

I am not a student of linguistics, but I’ve studied (to varying incomplete degrees) four other languages besides English, and it became plain to me that grammatical gender within a language was built into the structure of language and the brain, independent of and bearing no relationship to biological gender or to social conventions of the culture speaking the language.

Yes, thanks to the Fall, to concupiscence, and to the very real biological differences between males and females (males are on average larger and stronger, females are the ones who bear children and nourish them as infants) males have been more prominent than females down through the ages. But it’s not because language trained us to be that way!
Please, tell me I’m wrong; but they DO refer very clearly to vir. I mean, didn’t Paul really say “brethern” of the male gender?
“Brethren,” like “men,” also carried an inclusive meaning. Social norms in the culture Paul was addressing being what they were, the majority in the crowd he was addressing would have been males, and “brethren” was the conventional form of address. After all, there were males in the audience; Paul was addressing them too! There are places in his letters where he speaks of a woman specifically and then he uses the term “sister.” The need to single out women apart from men every time just wasn’t part of the cultural mindset.

(To be continued)
 
Part II

There are many, many important passages in the Bible where “man/men” is NOT a translation of “vir.”

Some examples:

Genesis 1:27: So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.
Et creavit Deus hominem ad imaginem suam; ad imaginem Dei creavit illum; masculum et feminam creavit eos.

Genesis 1:31 adds “And God saw everything that he had made, and behold it was very good.”

(Right at the beginning of the Bible, we see that all of creation, male or female, is equally good. There is no subordination of women to men here, or greater love for men than women.)

Mark 8:36: Jesus says, “For what does it profit a man to gain the whole world and forfeit his life?”
Quid enim protest homini . . .

(Jesus is talking about all of us, not just males!)

The phrase “Son of Man” (e.g. Ps. 8:4, John 12:34) is always a translation of “filius hominis

St. Paul:
Romans 5:18 Then as one man’s trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one man’s act of righteousness leads to acquittal and life for all men.
Code:
 Igitur sicut per unius delictum in omnes **homines** in condemnationem, sic et per usius iustitiam in omnes **homines** in justificationem vitae
(more literal translation in today’s usage: Therefore, just as one’s sin (put) all humans in condemnation, so also by one’s righteousness (were) all humans (put) in righteousness of life. My translation, FWIW)

1 Timothy 2:1 “supplications, prayers, intercessions and thanksgivings be made for all men”
. . . pro omnibus **hominibus
**
1 Timothy 2:4 God our Saviour, who desires all men to be saved
“qui omnes homines vult salvos”

Titus 2:11 For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all men
Apparuit enim gratia Dei salutaris hominibus

I could multiply examples on and on, but I think that is enough to show that God’s mercy and love is for all humankind, male or female. Many, many verses, despite the English “men,” do not refer to vir only.
What are the true implications of changing that clearly masculine word to include “sisters”?
The word “brethren” carried the secondary inclusive meaning. I resent and dispute the idea that today we are unable to grasp that concept, but if it is necessary to clear up the misunderstanding, then there is nothing “wrong” with translating it into the more wordy “brothers and sisters.” And the Church certainly has the authority to do so.

(To be continued)
 
Part III
If what you are saying is true and the earlier generations interpreted the Bible easily and clearly based on context; then, my friend, I’m afraid we all have to admit that the role of women is insubstantial. In fact, the LDS’s and the Fundamentalist Muslims got it right after all: women are worth nothing, not to be regarded at all. It really is all about God’s love for vir.
I would never say that the earlier generations interpreted the Bible easily and clearly–the multiplicity of contradictory interpretations and conflicting denominations renders such a conclusion ludicrous. All I said was that they didn’t have the difficulty we have today with the double meaning of such words as “man” and “brethren” and “his.”

A large part of the error here is that we are straying perilously close to a rigid Fundamentalist attitude, and to “cherry-picking” verses to prove a point.

While Protestants rely only on the Bible and their individual understanding of it, our Catholic faith rests on three pillars: the Bible, Sacred Tradition, and the Magisterium. No one pillar is more important than the others, and all must be in agreement. As a result, we read the Bible somewhat differently than Protestants do. And we need to remember that the Bible came out of the Church, and not the other way around.

Dei Verbum, one of the documents of Vatican II, and thus part of the teaching of the Magisterium, sets forth the principles of how we should approach the Bible. It’s a short document and not that difficult to read, but if you want a good, clear explanation of it, I would recommend Mark Shea’s Making Senses out of Scripture, Part II. This is the source I’m using as I type up these comments.

The first and most important sense of Scripture (and the one that concerns us here) is the literal sense. Shea writes (p. 162-163):
. . .we must keep in mind that the literal sense of Scripture is often much trickier to discern than we might realize. The reasons for this are numerous. Sometimes, for instance, the problem may lie with a text that is obscure, even in the original language. Other times, the problem may lie in the difficulty of translating an idea from Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek into another language. **Still other times, the problem lies with us as readers being unable to cope with some difficulty, slang term, alien mode of expression, cultural difference, or theological concept which is foreign to our own time and culture. **
The part I have bolded covers what is giving us trouble here.

To be continued.
 
Part IV

Shea, p. 166, quoting Dei Verbum:
. . .there are three things we must take special care to do when approaching Scripture:
  1. Be especially attentive “to the content and unity of the whole Scripture.”
  2. Read the Scripture within “the living tradition of the whole Church.”
  3. Be attentive to the analogy of faith.
What does this mean when applied to the issue we’re discussing here?
  1. “Be especially attentive to the content and unity of the whole Scripture” means that we cannot “cherry-pick” a few verses that use “vir” and “brethren” and conclude that God loves only vires (plural of vir), ignoring all the other verses that use “homo” which means “all members of the species homo sapiens.”
In fact, most of the heresies down through history, and most of the errors prevalent today, and many of the difficulties people struggle with in accepting the faith, are rooted in this temptation to take one small aspect of Church teachings and magnify it out of all proportion, ignoring all the other aspects which provide a counterbalance. Catholicism is very balanced; it’s one of the reasons I love my faith.
  1. “Read the Scripture within the living tradition of the whole Church” means, to quote Shea again, “we must ask how a given text has been understood over the span of the Church’s history.” Culture, society and biology being what they have been down through the ages (and are today, lived in by imperfect and sinful human beings), men (vires) have been more noticed, more prominent, and more dominant than women. But women have always been there. The Church has always understood that God loves every one of us, and Christ came for every one of us, regardless of our gender.
Bottom line: No matter what the feminists, LDS, Fundamentalists, or Muslims say, the idea that “It really is all about God’s love for vir” is wrong, wrong, wrong. One can understand how they go astray, because they don’t have the counterbalance of Sacred Tradition and Magisterium to keep them on track. Some Catholics get it wrong too; there’s been a lot of almost nonexistent catechesis in recent years, and I suspect it wasn’t all that great at many periods in the past. But Catholic teaching is that we are all equally precious to God. And we read the Bible with that understanding.

Yes, women have been less prominent. But the Old Testament holds up such individuals as Ruth, Esther, Judith, for our admiration. They were women. The single most highly honoured human in Church history is a woman, Mary. The Gospels (and Paul) speak in many places of the women who followed Christ, who were an important part of the early Church, who gave alms and shelter to the disciples. (Remember the harlot who lowered Paul in a basket from the city walls so he could escape his persecutors?) When the persecutions began, many women were among the martyrs. Yes, there were more men, because men were more “in the public eye”, but if you read the old martyrologies, women are numerous and equally honoured. In the Tridentine mass, just after the consecration, a list of martyrs is read off, 8 men, followed immediately by 7 women’s names “Felicity, Perpetua, Agatha, Lucy, Agnes, Cecelia, Anastasia”. Nowadays, we hardly ever hear the Roman Canon (1st Eucharistic Prayer) and when we do, the saints’ names are usually omitted–all part of the downplaying of the role of the saints which has left so many of us ignorant of the women’s contributions. Women such as St. Hildegarde of Bergen, St. Catharine of Sienna, and St. Theresa of Avila were highly honoured in their day. There were many more.

The “analogy of faith” part doesn’t really apply to the issue at hand, (for which I am glad, since it is harder to explain, and I’ve already spent much of my day on this!).

I remember when radical feminists first came to prominence, and how they encouraged women to “raise their consciousness” and see themselves as “victims.” Among other things, they applied the same rigid, narrow literalism to language that fundamentalists applied to the Bible, and in so doing led many into the same sort of errors. I guess I need to give thanks that it didn’t infect me–and I was in university at the time too; there was plenty of it around me. It’s not “us” vs. “them”–we are all God’s children.

Summary: As Catholics, we read the Bible in the light of both Magisterial teaching and Sacred Tradition. When the Magisterial teaching says we have to look at the overall picture throughout the Bible, including the social context, not just a few isolated verses, and Sacred Tradition says that women have always been honoured and loved by God, then if we read “vir” and “fratres” (brothers) in a few places and conclude that God loves only males, we are reading it wrong.

I hope this is of some help.
 
This is huge, stitchwort. And again, I thank you. I love the gender-inclusive references you found. I suppose I have to go look now at the Latin, myself.

It seems like we’re on slightly slippery ground here, though. We’re back to vir being gender inclusive.

I want to pray on this a few days. Hope you don’t mind checking back in next week some time. For a decent response from me.

Pax
Carol
 
InspiritCarol:

I gave you quotes from the very beginning of the Bible, from Jesus’ words and from St. Paul. I just thought of one more very important one, from the early centuries of the Church, the definitive statement of Catholic faith, the Nicene Creed:

Who for us (men) and for our salvation . . .
Qui propter nos homines et propter nostram salutem . . .

Until next week–
 
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