New Poll: Do you think Homosexual Acts are Sinful?

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And all Protestants set the stage for separating sex from procreation by approving of artificial methods of birth control, thus making homosexuality to be “understandable.”

As soon as sex is no longer about family and children, every kind of perversion becomes thinkable.
How does birth control make homosexuality ‘understandable’? It does only if forcing priests to be celibate makes them pediphiles. The answer in BOTH situations is that they DON’T follow logically. Birth contro has NOTHING to do with the acceptance of homosexuality AND the teaching of the CC that a single priest must remain celibate DOESN’T turn him into a homosexual. (I hope Guanophore reads me carefully so he won’t misrepresent what I’ve said. Maybe I’m misplacing my hope.)

When Paul wrote about the ‘marriage bed’ how many times did he speak of it in terms of children and how many times did he speak of it as being the responsibility of spouses for each other?

Here’s one example:

1 Corinthians 7:
1 ¶ Now concerning the things of which you wrote to me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.
2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband.
3 Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband.
4 The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does.
5 Do not deprive one another except with consent for a time, that you may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again so that Satan does not tempt you because of your lack of self–control.
6 But I say this as a concession, not as a commandment.
7 For I wish that all men were even as I myself. But each one has his own gift from God, one in this manner and another in that.

Notice, there’s nothing about having children!!!

I’ll wait for your verses to the contrary.

Paul said he wished all men to be able to remain celibate. Interesting in light of the priesthood/celibacy ‘debate’.
 
That’s the whole point of the “natural evolution of homosexuality,” isn’t it? That, since we’re overpopulated, “nature” has produced homosexuals - that is to say, persons with no procreative instinct - in order to reduce the birthrate.

Isn’t that the line that you guys are towing? 🤷
With all due respect to my Protestant brethren…not all of them think this way. When I was Protestant…I never heard that homosexual acts were not sinful. Of course I think that I would have run from that denomination. It depends on which denomination…and there are so many of them. Some think it’s ok, some don’t. Definetly not all Protestants believe that homesexual acts are ok. Just as not all Protestants believe that birth control is ok…of course some of them have a different line of reasoning then the CC does.
 
That’s the whole point of the “natural evolution of homosexuality,” isn’t it? That, since we’re overpopulated, “nature” has produced homosexuals - that is to say, persons with no procreative instinct - in order to reduce the birthrate.

Isn’t that the line that you guys are towing? 🤷
The line that us guys are towing? I didn’t realize anything was being towed. And I’m not aware that anything has come out of Chicago about this. I’ve never realized that there was a natural evolution to homosexuality and that it’s natural evolution would come from overpopulation. Then would you say that we have only had homosexuals since the 20th century? When was it that the first homosexual “evolved” to counter overpopulation? And was this a response to local overpopulation as compared to a global population?
 
The line that us guys are towing? I didn’t realize anything was being towed. And I’m not aware that anything has come out of Chicago about this. I’ve never realized that there was a natural evolution to homosexuality and that it’s natural evolution would come from overpopulation. Then would you say that we have only had homosexuals since the 20th century? When was it that the first homosexual “evolved” to counter overpopulation? And was this a response to local overpopulation as compared to a global population?
That’s the line I keep hearing from the homosexual community - that they are the next stage of human evolution. 🤷
 
I agree, but a few examples off the top of my head are Crusades any of them,
Given the diversity of wars to which that label was applied at various times, discussing that would take us a long time.

I would agree that the Middle Eastern Crusades of the High Middle Ages were (among other things) a mistaken attempt by the papacy to channel the military energies of Western Europe into the cause of defending Christendom. I also think that they were a failure, though not everyone agrees with me. (I don’t think that in the absence of the Crusades the Muslims would have taken Constantinople and threatened the West any sooner–but I could be wrong on that one.)

However, people have a lot of silly ideas about the Crusades–I’m not saying that you do, but I can’t assume that when people say “the Crusades” they are speaking from an accurate historical understanding. For instance, there are people who think that the purpose of the Crusades was to convert or exterminate Muslims, and that the Crusaders engaged in a “convert or die” policy toward the Muslims they ruled. Both of these things are clearly false. The Crusades were a response to Seljuk Turkish aggression against the Byzantine Empire (which was unquestionably real) and reported atrocities against Christian pilgrims in the Holy Land as well as against the Byzantines (the atrocities were no doubt greatly exaggerated). Had the Crusaders cooperated with the Byzantines, the Crusades would in my opinion have been about as close to a just war as it’s possible to come.
Thirty years war.
A good example. The last (and probably most destructive) phase of the Thirty Years’ War had lost much of its religious character, inasmuch as the French were involved in the “Protestant” side for pretty much purely political reasons. But certainly religion played an important role in starting the war.
I do understand that obviously there were some internal national politics involved with any of these conflicts, but it always seemed to be a religious bent as the primary focus and then the other struggles just kept adding fuel.
It’s hard to say what was “primary”–my advisor used to say, “Human behavior is always overdetermined.” But certainly these are two good examples of wars motivated to a very large extent (at least initially) by religious zeal.

I’d like to hear a little more on what it means for these not to have “worked out.” I think it’s fair to say that neither of them did. But would they have “worked out” better if they had been successful (on either side, in the case of the Thirty Years’ War)? I don’t think that’s what you’re after–I think you’re making a moral critique. But that’s where your criticism risks becoming circular. If you are saying, “church-state alliances are bad because they cause wars,” then you are assuming either that war is always wrong (which you may believe) or that religious war is wrong while other wars may not be. (Or to put the latter possibility a different way, you could be assuming that war is wrong when it’s unnecessary, and that religion is not the sort of thing over which people should fight.) This latter assumption (with or without the nuance I provided in the parenthesis) is precisely the point that needs to be debated if we are to make an argument against state churches. The concept of a state church is generally rooted in the idea that religion *is *the sort of thing that should be the basis of a society and should be protected by the machinery of civil government (which would include, for most folks, warfare, at least as a last resort). So to make the case that this position is wrong, you need something more than “religion has sometimes started wars.”

If you want to make the case that religious wars are particularly destructive, or particularly likely to be futile, then the examples you gave (especially the Thirty Years’ War) are a good place to start–but then you need to do some kind of comparison with other kinds of wars. In my opinion war in general is generally futile, at least for any genuinely good purpose, though there are some wars of which this is not obviously true. (That is to say, there are particular aims, either arguably or unquestionably good, which have been reached by wars. A critic of war in general might argue that even these wars invariably have caused evils as great as those they succeeded in preventing or eliminating–WWII would be the textbook case here. But that’s a point on which reasonable people can and do differ.)

We’re already off topic, and so we probably shouldn’t launch into a debate about war in general. My point is only that a discussion of religious violence needs to take place in the context of a discussion of violence in general. Too often modern Westerners simply assume that whatever kinds of violence might be OK, religious violence obviously isn’t. This strikes me as an irrational assumption, unless of course one has previously proven that all religions are false or at least trivial (which would amount to the same thing, since pretty much anything anyone has called a religion has claimed to be of immense importance). Sure, there’s a bitter irony in the idea of people fighting for the “Prince of Peace”–but there’s also bitter irony in the idea of fighting “the war to end wars” or fighting “to make the world safe for democracy.” If war is ever just, it’s just because it is fought in the service of peace. (Indeed, Augustine would say that all wars are fought in the service of some kind of peace, so the irony is built into war itself.) If Christianity isn’t worth fighting for, then what about the various secular goals for which people fight?

Edwin
 
:confused:

He talks about men being sexually attracted to other men. Isn’t that the definition of homosexuality? That they are sexually attracted to persons of the same sex, instead of to persons of the opposite sex. The passage doesn’t identify the possible causes of this, but simply tells the reader not to act on such impulses.
In the case of Romans, that isn’t the point of the passage. The point of the passage is that homosexual behavior among the pagans is a sign of God’s wrath in response to pagan idolatry. I don’t think one can discuss this passage without considering what kind of homosexual behavior Paul is likely to have had in mind.

Again, I’m not saying that this passage is of no weight against the legitimacy of homosexual behavior. I think it is.
The Tradition tells us that the Sacrament of Marriage takes place between one unmarried man and one unmarried woman who intend to work together to become the parents of a new family, and that sexual activity outside of the union of husband and wife is sinful.
I agree entirely.
So, there’s not really anything from the Tradition that nuances the passage in question.
My point was that you can’t simply quote a prooftext and assume that the question is resolved.

Where the Tradition is helpful here (and certain other parts of the NT, which are important linchpins of the Tradition in this regard–Matt. 19 and Ephesians 5, for instance) is in giving us the moral framework within which homosexuality is sinful.

And within that framework, it becomes evident that a same-sex relationship that is in many ways imitating marriage and contains many of the goods of marriage, while still falling short of marriage (and hence of full moral legitimacy), cannot be regarded as horrendous, unmitigated evil.

Edwin
 
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