New SSPX Motu Proprio?

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Who’s in danger of schism?
Almost every document concerning the SSPX has referred this danger, though of course they mention no names. I think the fact that the SSPV broke off from the SSPX indicates at least a danger for some folks of stepping out from the Catholic Church.
 
Almost every document concerning the SSPX has referred this danger, though of course they mention no names. I think the fact that the SSPV broke off from the SSPX indicates at least a danger for some folks of stepping out from the Catholic Church.
I think Pope Benedict’s silence in response to the German Bishops’ calls to the Vatican asking if they could excommunicate all those involved with the Ordinations in Regensburg indicates at least a danger that some folks are actually close to stepping out of line from the Catholic Church. No, really. I believe that.🙂
 
I think Pope Benedict’s silence in response to the German Bishops’ calls to the Vatican asking if they could excommunicate all those involved with the Ordinations in Regensburg indicates at least a danger that some folks are actually close to stepping out of line from the Catholic Church. No, really. I believe that.🙂
I’m not sure Benedict was completely silent, see this from CNS: catholicnews.com/data/stories/cns/0902770.htm
 
Almost every document concerning the SSPX has referred this danger, though of course they mention no names. I think the fact that the SSPV broke off from the SSPX indicates at least a danger for some folks of stepping out from the Catholic Church.
The danger of “some folks stepping out from the Catholic Church” isn’t limited to the Society, though I suppose you are right to say that documents for and about the SSPX would probably be the right place to address these concerns. Are there similar documents in regard to the rest of the church, or certain national churches, such as the American Catholic Church or those of some European countries? Personally I’m more concerned with the clergy who want a free hand to practice hedonism than the ones who want a free hand to practice traditional Catholicism. Perhaps it’s high time the pope both warn of heresy and schism, and enforce the rules. Just a thought.
 
The SSPX is in danger of schism according to Pope Benedict who said, “An episcopal ordination lacking a pontifical mandate raises the danger of a schism, since it jeopardizes the unity of the College of Bishops with the Pope.” This is a quote from the same March 12th letter I linked to earlier.
Hmm, I guess you’re right, though “danger of schism” isn’t limited to the SSPX by any means!
“Minimalist” is the term the article quoted in the OP used. I don’t know what it means, either, which is why I put it in quotes. I don’t know that “spirit” of Vatican II means, for that matter. Pope Benedict, and Pope John Paul II, have both consistently said that Vatican II needs to be implemented, not shoved out of a window.
Right. Vatican II can stay, I agree. And yes, I hope they do finally implement it…I mean, it’s been 40 years, hasn’t it!!! All I said was to throw the “spirit” out the window…not the whole council. “Spirit” is synonymous with following the “social fashions of the times” and “do whatever you want”, if my 23 years in the NO is any indication.
No new dogma was defined, but the council did provide a fuller explanation and understanding of several existing dogmas. By theologically retrogressive, I mean an attempt to undo the last century of growth and understanding in the Church’s theology.
Can you give an example of a “fuller explanation” of an older dogma? What I see since the council (and * from * the council, too) is mostly just obfuscation and equivocation and confusion about the dogmas of the Church.
Whether I agree with this depends on what you mean by radical. Is it radical to believe that all can be saved by Christ, even those that do not profess to be Christians? Is it radical to believe that the Catholic faith is the best expression of God’s teaching on earth, but that elements of His truth can be found in other religions, particularly Judaism and Islam? These are some of the things I have seen so-called traditionalists deny.
By “radical” I mean “new”. A dogma can be explained more thoroughly, but it can’t be contradicted.
Well, there is not one consistent teaching for the traditionalist movement, but the writings of the leaders of the SSPX tend to reject an implicit Baptism of Desire for non-Christians and/or to define “invicible ignorance” in a way that excludes most modern people from the doctrine.
Though I tend to doubt your take on what the SSPX says, I will say this: most modern people probably can be excluded from the “invincible ignorance” argument. I’m pretty sure the SSPX doesn’t deny the possibility of either BOB or BOD.
This question was about salvation for the Jews. The new teaching is not any different from the original teaching. But between the beginning and now a significant portion of the Church came to believe that Jews suffered from a blood curse that prevented them from being good people - that they were born morally stunted and could not be saved.
I thing I tend to doubt this. Did your parents (or their parents) truly believe that “the Jews” are morally stunted and can’t be saved??? Honestly? That’s why I doubt what you’ve said here.
Vatican II reemphasized that the Jews are the original Chosen People, and that no special curse or stain lies on them. Before the Bishop Williamson flap the SSPX had articles about the curse on the Jews posted on their website; they are down now. I don’t know if that reflects a change of position or not.
Really!?!? I’ll have to look into that. I’ve never heard of their stance that there was a “curse” on them.
I think they are still “inside” the Church only because of the efforts of the Pope and his predecessor.
They’re still inside due to their own stance and actions.
But I don’t think that the Vatican will find that there is a place in the Church for rogue clergy who insist on performing illicit ordainations or who put conditions on the teaching authority of the Church.
Spare me.
In addition to the examples I gave above relating to EENS and Jews, the SSPX rejects the teaching authority of the Church every time they condition acceptance of the teaching authority of the Church by saying that they only accept the Catechism or the Dogmatic Constituton insofar as it is consistent with the past teachings of the Church.
But this is prudent.
The Church has said, in full Ecumenical Council and in the persons of four Popes, that the teachings of Vatican II are consistent with the Traditions of the Church.
Good…now let’s make sure all the clergy in “full communion” know it.
SSPX doesn’t get to pick and choose the parts it likes.
And they don’t.
 
This is yet another frustrating misconception. The impediment has never been doctrinal. As you know, Ab. Lefebvre signed the V2 documents. While they were not perfect(ly clear), they were promulgated. No one expected that they would be used to contradict clear areas of the deposit of faith.
I don’t understand why you say the impediment to their return to full communion is not doctrinal. The Pope has said that it is, and he has a pretty big say in whether tjheir canonical authority is restored. Then you go on to say the problem is in the way the Church is interpreting the documents of Vatican II, which seems like a doctrinal issue.
The “teaching authority of the church” only extends to teaching the faith as handed down and that is also the boundary of infallibility. One cannot take a V2 document and use it to justify and/or implement a new doctrine. The SSPX argues that this is what has been done in the period since the council documents were published. The doctrinal discussions will serve to clarify that where this has been done, a reiteration of the original and true meaning will be affirmed by the Vatican. That will be the solution. If the “teaching authority of the church” means that what has previously been taught infallibly by Popes and Councils as error is now OK based on a modern reading of the V2 documents, then you have redefined the Teaching Authority of the Church. There can be no new revelation on what constitutes such things as the means for salvation, no matter how much we’d like to snuggle up our non-Catholic brethren without converting them. I think the Pope knows this and will use the occasion to kill two birds with one stone, namely, the clarification on where the meaning of V2 documents have gone astray, which he has personally lamented in his pre-papal writings, and reintegration of the Society and those Independent priests, Monasteries, and Convents that remain associated with them.
This is the crux of the issue, isn’t it? You say that Rome’s authority “only extends to teaching the faith as handed down.” But who gets to say whether the teaching is “as handed down”? Isn’t this the same thing every group that has split from the Church has said? I am unware of any denomination that says that the Church is teaching the way Christ and the Apostles intended, but they are going to try something different. Every single Christian denomination alleges that the Church has misinterpreted or otherwise failed to properly preserve the deposit of faith. SSPX’s position on that is not any different than that of the Old Catholics, or of the Lutherans, for that matter.
 
TMC you are totally missing the point.

You say: “You say that Rome’s authority “only extends to teaching the faith as handed down.” But who gets to say whether the teaching is “as handed down”?”

You said: “Every single Christian denomination alleges that the Church has misinterpreted or otherwise failed to properly preserve the deposit of faith. SSPX’s position on that is not any different than that of the Old Catholics, or of the Lutherans, for that matter.”

You are wrong. The SSPX is only maintaining what has *always *been taught by the Church! They have introduced no novelties. Their language is clear and concise, and not “open to interpretation” in the way it is written.

On the other hand, how often do you see anything lately (in the last 40 years) like that from the Vatican?
 
Hmm, I guess you’re right, though “danger of schism” isn’t limited to the SSPX by any means!

Right. Vatican II can stay, I agree. And yes, I hope they do finally implement it…I mean, it’s been 40 years, hasn’t it!!! All I said was to throw the “spirit” out the window…not the whole council. “Spirit” is synonymous with following the “social fashions of the times” and “do whatever you want”, if my 23 years in the NO is any indication.
I’m not sure what you mean by this, but if you mean that a lot of the friction created by Vatican II is the result of an attempt to rapidly move the Church away from its established culture, I agree. I think that is a separate issue from the opposition to the doctrinal disputes over what the Church teaches.
Can you give an example of a “fuller explanation” of an older dogma? What I see since the council (and * from * the council, too) is mostly just obfuscation and equivocation and confusion about the dogmas of the Church.
By “radical” I mean “new”. A dogma can be explained more thoroughly, but it can’t be contradicted.
The example that generates the most heat is the doctrine that outside the Church there is no salvation. Vatican II explained that this does not mean that only formal members of the Catholic Church can be saved. It means that all salvation comes through Christ’s Grace. All those that receive Christ’s Grace are members of His Church, even if neither that person or the human hierarchy of the Church on earth are aware of it. This is not exactly the way the doctrine has been taught at all times in Church history, but it is not really a conflict with the old teaching. At times a narrower interpretation has been taught because the Church has not always understood the extent of the Church’s mysterious extension beyond its visible earthly structures. Vatican II helped clarify this doctrine.
Though I tend to doubt your take on what the SSPX says, I will say this: most modern people probably can be excluded from the “invincible ignorance” argument. I’m pretty sure the SSPX doesn’t deny the possibility of either BOB or BOD.
My understanding is that SSPX narrows the doctrines to the point that they virtually vanish. But setting aside what SSPX does or doesn’t teach (which seems hard to pin down, anyway), my understanding is that invincible ignorance is broader than you suggest. Invincible ignorance includes, but is not limited to those (1) that have never heard of Christ, and (2) that have had no real opportunity to hear the Gospel and convert. The Catechism says that the doctrine extends to those that “would have desired Baptism explicitly if they had known its necessity.” That is pretty broad, for who would not desire Baptism if they knew they needed one?
I thing I tend to doubt this. Did your parents (or their parents) truly believe that “the Jews” are morally stunted and can’t be saved??? Honestly? That’s why I doubt what you’ve said here.
Really!?!? I’ll have to look into that. I’ve never heard of their stance that there was a “curse” on them.
My parents didn’t believe this, and the vast majority of Catholics throughout history did not. But until recently you could read all about it on SSPX’s website. If you search on "blood curse"on these forums you may find some discussion of it.
They’re still inside due to their own stance and actions.
This is a legitimate way to look at it, but I think its more accurate to say that they are still inside because of the pastoral approach taken by the Pope. If you go to the Roman Catholic Women Priests website you’ll see that they also claim to be still within the Church. I am not saying that they are, or should be, I’m just saying that the SSPX’s insistence that they remain inside is not the controlling factor.
Spare me.
I don’t understand. The Church should tolerate groups that illicitly ordain priests and bishops? How could the Church allow that?
But this is prudent.
Prudent to reject the Church’s teaching? To be clear, I have no problem with Catholic clergy or laity disagreeing with certain teachings of the Church, or even with groups getting together and petitioning Rome for change. The problem I have is when they say that they get to decide what the Church “really” teaches. If SSPX were an obedient group that constantly said “we ought to teach X, not Y,” I would not have a problem with that. (I think the Vatican would, but I would not.)
Good…now let’s make sure all the clergy in “full communion” know it.
I think they most do, the problem is that some deny that the current teaching is in accord with the deposit of faith.
And they don’t.
Given all of the above, I don’t know how you can say they don’t pick and choose. Certainly they assert that they get to pick which councils have teaching authority. And if you don’t agree with that, certainly they reject the Catechism, or at least many parts of it. Isn’t that picking and choosing?
 
The danger of “some folks stepping out from the Catholic Church” isn’t limited to the Society,…
True. In fact, there are many ways one can place himself in danger of schism or excommunication. Many of these, however are handled more locally, like the rainbows-sashers or Medigorjie. Perhaps the international nature of the SSPX means that this situation is best addressed between them and the Vatican. Also, since their current predicament came about as a result of papal action, then the solution must be at an equal level.
 
This is the crux of the issue, isn’t it? You say that Rome’s authority “only extends to teaching the faith as handed down.” But who gets to say whether the teaching is “as handed down”? Isn’t this the same thing every group that has split from the Church has said? I am unware of any denomination that says that the Church is teaching the way Christ and the Apostles intended, but they are going to try something different. Every single Christian denomination alleges that the Church has misinterpreted or otherwise failed to properly preserve the deposit of faith. SSPX’s position on that is not any different than that of the Old Catholics, or of the Lutherans, for that matter.
I think the difference here is that all of the groups you mention took issue with an infallibly defined dogma of the church - Old Catholics, Lutherans, etc. The Second Vatican Council produced no infallibly-defined dogma. The (purpopsely) imprecise documents of V2 have led the church, in some cases, to teach contrary to their immediate predecessors. It is not hard, for instance, to read the Syllabus of Pius IX and see how the church has strayed from the former Magisterium to produce a new one, in many cases.
 
I think the difference here is that all of the groups you mention took issue with an infallibly defined dogma of the church - Old Catholics, Lutherans, etc. The Second Vatican Council produced no infallibly-defined dogma. The (purpopsely) imprecise documents of V2 have led the church, in some cases, to teach contrary to their immediate predecessors. It is not hard, for instance, to read the Syllabus of Pius IX and see how the church has strayed from the former Magisterium to produce a new one, in many cases.
Whether particular documents from particular councils, or parts or themes drawn from those documents are or are not infallible is something that could be argued about, but its not relevant to the current topic. The Church has many doctrines that are not infallibly defined yet must be adhered to. The issue is that the Church has teaching authority, and Ecumenical Councils have the authority to promulgate Church doctrine. Lumen Gentium is the Dogmatic Constitution of the Church and it is no less authoritative than the Dogmatic Constitution published by Vatican I.

I constantly hear that the Vatican II documents were imprecise. I don’t find them to be imprecise or vague. Can you give me a specific example of an imprecision in the Vatican II documents that is leading people into error?
 
Whether particular documents from particular councils, or parts or themes drawn from those documents are or are not infallible is something that could be argued about, but its not relevant to the current topic. The Church has many doctrines that are not infallibly defined yet must be adhered to.
Not true. There is a very specific formula that is to be used to denote an article of faith that must be believed. None of the V2 documents invoke infallibility.
I constantly hear that the Vatican II documents were imprecise. I don’t find them to be imprecise or vague. Can you give me a specific example of an imprecision in the Vatican II documents that is leading people into error?
Sure, a classic example is in LG speaking of the church:

This Church constituted and organized in the world as a society, subsists in the Catholic Church, which is governed by the successor of Peter and by the Bishops in communion with him, although many elements of sanctification and of truth are found outside of its visible structure.

What does “subsists in” mean? The Church has always taught that the Church of Christ is the Catholic Church. “IS” is much easier to understand and very precise. It denotes equality. But this choice to be imprecise has led to the new belief that the boundary of Church of Christ is larger than the Catholic Church and contains “others” and that, by this wording, The Church of Christ and The Catholic Church are different entities that intersect but not exclusive to each other. . And that in turn has led to the belief that it is not important/required for Protestants to convert to Catholicism for their salvation - nor necessarily Jews or other non-Christians, as long as they have some element of faith in (a) God and are nice. Which has in turn led to a de-emphasis of missionary conversion efforts abroad, IMHO
 
Not true. There is a very specific formula that is to be used to denote an article of faith that must be believed. None of the V2 documents invoke infallibility.
I disagree. As far as I know, the Church has not published any special formula that it uses to invoke infallibility. If they have, can you refer me to it? The Church has also never published a list of what is or is not infallible. I have never seen any Church document that said that Vatican II lacked the same authority as other Ecumenical Councils or any Church document that says that nothing in the Vatican II documents is infallible, or that Vatican II’s teachings are not binding. Besides, even the “non-infallible” parts of the Church’s teaching are to be believed by Catholics, and surely you would agree that the Dogmatic Constitution and the Catechism are the teachings of the Church?
Sure, a classic example is in LG speaking of the church:
This Church constituted and organized in the world as a society, subsists in the Catholic Church, which is governed by the successor of Peter and by the Bishops in communion with him, although many elements of sanctification and of truth are found outside of its visible structure.
What does “subsists in” mean? The Church has always taught that the Church of Christ is the Catholic Church. “IS” is much easier to understand and very precise. It denotes equality. But this choice to be imprecise has led to the new belief that the boundary of Church of Christ is larger than the Catholic Church and contains “others” and that, by this wording, The Church of Christ and The Catholic Church are different entities that intersect but not exclusive to each other. . And that in turn has led to the belief that it is not important/required for Protestants to convert to Catholicism for their salvation - nor necessarily Jews or other non-Christians, as long as they have some element of faith in (a) God and are nice. Which has in turn led to a de-emphasis of missionary conversion efforts abroad, IMHO
I have seen this referenced as vague or imprecise or meaningless by others. I don’t disagree that this could be explained better, and maybe with different or fewer words, but I don’t think that the passage is imprecise. Even if it might be, the same principles are well explained in the Catechism in CCC 813-822.

My Websters defines “subsists” as “to exist,” “to remain in existence,” and notes that it derives from the Latin for “to stand up.” I agree that “subsists” is not a common word, and perhaps not the word that speakers of American English would have chosen. But other than one uncommon word, which anyone can look up, the passage is not difficult.

The real problem is not that this passage is hard to understand, it is that some people don’t like what it says.

This section of Lumen Gentium is discussing the Body of Christ and the relationship between Christ and His Church. The previous paragraph says that the Mysterious Body of Christ is not seperate from the earthly Church structure, that the visible assembly of the Church on earth and the spiritual Church are each aspects of the one Church, earthly and divine.

Up to this point, the document has described the Church, its origin, etc., but never explicitly said that the Church is the Catholic Church. Lumen Gentium then says that the Church, refering to the earthly and divine Church founded by Christ and discussed in the previous sentence and previous paragraph, subsists, that is exists and remains in existence, in the Catholic Church. What is difficult about that?

The problem is not really with the word subsists, the problem is that some are troubled by the next clause, which says that “many elements of sanctification and of truth are found outside of its visible structure.” It is said that the Church has not explained this well, but the Catechism explains it, although using more words than I am allowed here. The short of it is that it is through the Catholic Church alone that the fullness of the means to salvation can be obtained, but there are elements of truth to be found in other faiths. This is not due to chance; the Spirit acts on all men, just as Christ died for all men. Christ is not bound within the Church. His Grace is offered to all men, and some men are inspired to reach toward the Truth even without the aid of formal acceptance into the earthly Church.

Yes, as taught more explicitly elsewhere, this is related to the Church’s teaching that it is possible for non-Catholics and even non-Christians to be saved. But the Church has repeatedly emphasized, including in the documents of Vatican II, that this doctrine does not mean that it is not important to bring the Gospel to all men or that it is not important to continue to work to bring seperated Christians back to full communion with the Church, because “it is through Christ’s Catholic Church alone, which is the universal help toward salvation, that the fullness of the means of salvation can be obtained.” CCC 816 quoting Vatican II’s Decree on Ecumenism.
 
I disagree. As far as I know, the Church has not published any special formula that it uses to invoke infallibility. If they have, can you refer me to it?
This is from the Catholic Encyclopedia:

*Explanation of papal infallibility

The Vatican Council has defined as “a divinely revealed dogma” that "the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks ex cathedra – that is, when in the exercise of his office as pastor and teacher of all Christians he defines, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the whole Church – is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer wished His Church to be endowed For the correct understanding of this definition it is to be noted that:
Code:
* what is claimed for the pope is infallibility merely, not impeccability or inspiration (see above under I).
* the infallibility claimed for the pope is the same in its nature, scope, and extent as that which the Church as a whole possesses; his ex cathedra teaching does not have to be ratified by the Church's in order to be infallible.
* infallibility is not attributed to every doctrinal act of the pope, but only to his ex cathedra teaching; and the conditions required for ex cathedra teaching are mentioned in the Vatican decree:
      o The pontiff must teach in his public and official capacity as pastor and doctor of all Christians, not merely in his private capacity as a theologian, preacher or allocutionist, nor in his capacity as a temporal prince or as a mere ordinary of the Diocese of Rome. It must be clear that he speaks as spiritual head of the Church universal.
      o Then it is only when, in this capacity, he teaches some doctrine of faith or morals that he is infallible (see below, IV).
      o Further it must be sufficiently evident that he intends to teach with all the fullness and finality of his supreme Apostolic authority, in other words that he wishes to determine some point of doctrine in an absolutely final and irrevocable way, or to define it in the technical sense. These are well-recognized formulas by means of which the defining intention may be manifested.
      o Finally for an ex cathedra decision it must be clear that the pope intends to bind the whole Church. To demand internal assent from all the faithful to his teaching under pain of incurring spiritual shipwreck (naufragium fidei) according to the expression used by Pius IX in defining the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin. Theoretically, this intention might be made sufficiently clear in a papal decision which is addressed only to a particular Church; but in present day conditions, when it is so easy to communicate with the most distant parts of the earth and to secure a literally universal promulgation of papal acts, the presumption is that unless the pope formally addresses the whole Church in the recognized official way, he does not intend his doctrinal teaching to be held by all the faithful as ex cathedra and infallible.
It should be observed in conclusion that papal infallibility is a personal and incommunicable charisma, which is not shared by any pontifical tribunal. Hence doctrinal decisions or instructions issued by the Roman congregations, even when approved by the pope in the ordinary way, have no claim to be considered infallible. To be infallible they must be issued by the pope himself in his own name according to the conditions already mentioned as requisite for ex cathedra teaching.
*

None of the V2 documents come close to passing these conditions for infallibility. According to the Church, such a document, be it Lumen Gentium or any other, MUST specifically bear the direction that they are given by the Pope and are to be held as dogmatic beliefs. The typical wording for such a proclamation is “Let those who do not accept this belief be an anathema”.
I have seen this referenced as vague or imprecise or meaningless by others. I don’t disagree that this could be explained better, and maybe with different or fewer words, but I don’t think that the passage is imprecise. Even if it might be, the same principles are well explained in the Catechism in CCC 813-822.

The real problem is not that this passage is hard to understand, it is that some people don’t like what it says.

The problem is not really with the word subsists, the problem is that some are troubled by the next clause, which says that “many elements of sanctification and of truth are found outside of its visible structure.” It is said that the Church has not explained this well, but the Catechism explains it, although using more words than I am allowed here. The short of it is that it is through the Catholic Church alone that the fullness of the means to salvation can be obtained, but there are elements of truth to be found in other faiths. This is not due to chance; the Spirit acts on all men, just as Christ died for all men. Christ is not bound within the Church. His Grace is offered to all men, and some men are inspired to reach toward the Truth even without the aid of formal acceptance into the earthly Church.
I think we are in agreement here and it was great of His Holiness to make that clarification. One must be precise with the faith. If you were to ask me if a certain statement or fact I made was true and I answered “Truth subsists within my statement”, as opposed to “My statement is true”, certainly the latter is less-ambiguous and preferential to the former.
 
This is from the Catholic Encyclopedia:

*Explanation of papal infallibility

The Vatican Council has defined as “a divinely revealed dogma” that "the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks ex cathedra – that is, when in the exercise of his office as pastor and teacher of all Christians he defines, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the whole Church – is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer wished His Church to be endowed For the correct understanding of this definition it is to be noted that:
Code:
* what is claimed for the pope is infallibility merely, not impeccability or inspiration (see above under I).
* the infallibility claimed for the pope is the same in its nature, scope, and extent as that which the Church as a whole possesses; his ex cathedra teaching does not have to be ratified by the Church's in order to be infallible.
* infallibility is not attributed to every doctrinal act of the pope, but only to his ex cathedra teaching; and the conditions required for ex cathedra teaching are mentioned in the Vatican decree:
      o The pontiff must teach in his public and official capacity as pastor and doctor of all Christians, not merely in his private capacity as a theologian, preacher or allocutionist, nor in his capacity as a temporal prince or as a mere ordinary of the Diocese of Rome. It must be clear that he speaks as spiritual head of the Church universal.
      o Then it is only when, in this capacity, he teaches some doctrine of faith or morals that he is infallible (see below, IV).
      o Further it must be sufficiently evident* that he intends to teach with all the fullness and finality of his supreme Apostolic authority, in other words that he wishes to determine some point of doctrine in an absolutely final and irrevocable way, or to define it in the technical sense. These are well-recognized formulas by means of which the defining intention may be manifested.
      o Finally for an ex cathedra decision it must be clear that the pope intends to bind the whole Church. To demand internal assent from all the faithful to his teaching under pain of incurring spiritual shipwreck (naufragium fidei) according to the expression used by Pius IX in defining the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin. Theoretically, this intention might be made sufficiently clear in a papal decision which is addressed only to a particular Church; but in present day conditions, when it is so easy to communicate with the most distant parts of the earth and to secure a literally universal promulgation of papal acts, the presumption is that unless the pope formally addresses the whole Church in the recognized official way, he does not intend his doctrinal teaching to be held by all the faithful as ex cathedra and infallible.
It should be observed in conclusion that papal infallibility is a personal and incommunicable charisma, which is not shared by any pontifical tribunal. Hence doctrinal decisions or instructions issued by the Roman congregations, even when approved by the pope in the ordinary way, have no claim to be considered infallible. To be infallible they must be issued by the pope himself in his own name according to the conditions already mentioned as requisite for ex cathedra teaching.

None of the V2 documents come close to passing these conditions for infallibility. According to the Church, such a document, be it Lumen Gentium or any other, MUST specifically bear the direction that they are given by the Pope and are to be held as dogmatic beliefs. The typical wording for such a proclamation is “Let those who do not accept this belief be an anathema”.
You have provided a several paragraph description of papal infallibility, and then said that Vatican II does not “come close” to the description. Even setting aside that it is not clear that the description of papal infallibility applies to statements made by a Council, this description is a far cry from a “formula” for declaring something infallible.

Your bolded section about congregations does not apply to Ecumenical Councils. Congregations that are formed by the Vatican and work day-in and day-out for the Pope, like the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith do not share in papal infallibility. Ecumenical Councils are different, and their authority to infallibly define the faith has been recognized since the very beginnings of the Church, or at least since 325.

The “anathema” declaration is the punishment provided for failing to believe the statement it is attached to. The anathema is often seen as an indicator of infallibility, but the Church has never said that only statements concluding with an anathema declaration are infallible, or that statemtents without it are not. I have still seen no statement from the Church that says that the documents of Vatican II are not capable of containing infallible statements, or that the teaching of Vatican II is not binding on all Catholics.
 
I think we are in agreement here and it was great of His Holiness to make that clarification. One must be precise with the faith. If you were to ask me if a certain statement or fact I made was true and I answered “Truth subsists within my statement”, as opposed to “My statement is true”, certainly the latter is less-ambiguous and preferential to the former.
I am glad we agree on something! (I put this in a separate post because of the length restrictions.)

I think that part of the issue is that there is a difference between between being imprecise and being ambiguous. To say that the Church of Christ subsists in the Catholic Church is more precise than saying the Catholic Church is the Church of Christ. Both are true, but the first more precisely captures the Church’s teaching because the Church teaches that the Church of Christ extends in a mysterious way beyond what we see as the visible structure of the Catholic Church. That could have been made clearer in Lumen Gentium, but it is made clear in other documents, including the Catechism.
 
You have provided a several paragraph description of papal infallibility, and then said that Vatican II does not “come close” to the description. Even setting aside that it is not clear that the description of papal infallibility applies to statements made by a Council, this description is a far cry from a “formula” for declaring something infallible.

Your bolded section about congregations does not apply to Ecumenical Councils. Congregations that are formed by the Vatican and work day-in and day-out for the Pope, like the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith do not share in papal infallibility. Ecumenical Councils are different, and their authority to infallibly define the faith has been recognized since the very beginnings of the Church, or at least since 325.

The “anathema” declaration is the punishment provided for failing to believe the statement it is attached to. The anathema is often seen as an indicator of infallibility, but the Church has never said that only statements concluding with an anathema declaration are infallible, or that statemtents without it are not. I have still seen no statement from the Church that says that the documents of Vatican II are not capable of containing infallible statements, or that the teaching of Vatican II is not binding on all Catholics.
The test V2 doesn’t pass is that there is no declaration attached to LG or any other document from that council where the Pope and Council declare that the document is dogmatic and needs to accepted as necessary to the faith. That would make it infallible. On the contrary, the council was pastoral and meant to give guidance.
 
The test V2 doesn’t pass is that there is no declaration attached to LG or any other document from that council where the Pope and Council declare that the document is dogmatic and needs to accepted as necessary to the faith. That would make it infallible. On the contrary, the council was pastoral and meant to give guidance.
Three points.
  1. I am not saying Vatican II is infallible, only that, infallible or not, it is the authoritative teaching of the Church and not “optional.” It is just as binding as any other authoritative teaching of the Church.
  2. That said, there is no “INFALLIBLE” stamp in Rome that must be affixed to a document to make it infallible. Because Vatican II draws on the entire Deposit of Faith, including the teachings of Trent and Vatican I, it certainly incorporates all the teaching of the Church infallible or not. The Church has never been in the business of parsing out its documents into fallible and infallible parts; all the Church’s teaching has authority, especially teaching that issues from an Ecumenical Council.
  3. Why do some people insist that pastoral = optional? Where does that come from? Pastoral describes the nature and purpose of the Council. Pastoral means “of or relating to spiritual care and guidance.” Some Councils were called to correct specific errors. This Council actually had a broader mandate. Why would anyone think that meant it had less authority?
 
Three points.
  1. I am not saying Vatican II is infallible, only that, infallible or not, it is the authoritative teaching of the Church and not “optional.” It is just as binding as any other authoritative teaching of the Church.
Agreed.
  1. That said, there is no “INFALLIBLE” stamp in Rome that must be affixed to a document to make it infallible. Because Vatican II draws on the entire Deposit of Faith, including the teachings of Trent and Vatican I, it certainly incorporates all the teaching of the Church infallible or not. The Church has never been in the business of parsing out its documents into fallible and infallible parts; all the Church’s teaching has authority, especially teaching that issues from an Ecumenical Council.
You’re mistaken on this, T. Infallibility MUST be explicitly invoked.
  1. Why do some people insist that pastoral = optional? Where does that come from? Pastoral describes the nature and purpose of the Council. Pastoral means “of or relating to spiritual care and guidance.” Some Councils were called to correct specific errors. This Council actually had a broader mandate. Why would anyone think that meant it had less authority?
There is a current thread on this board dealing with limbo. In it you will find cited several Councils and Popes making declarations on Limbo. So are you saying that because these Popes and Councils taught that unbaptised babies go to Limbo, that we MUST take that as an infallible teaching of the church? If not, why not?
 
Agreed.

You’re mistaken on this, T. Infallibility MUST be explicitly invoked.
Then why is there such disagreement over what is or is not infallible, and why is there no list of what is infallible?
There is a current thread on this board dealing with limbo. In it you will find cited several Councils and Popes making declarations on Limbo. So are you saying that because these Popes and Councils taught that unbaptised babies go to Limbo, that we MUST take that as an infallible teaching of the church? If not, why not?
No, I am not sure how you get there from my comments. I think Limbo was always presented as a possibility and not an authoritative teaching. But if it were presented as an authoritative teaching, Catholics would be bound to accept it as the teaching of the Church. Not all teachings put forth by Councils and Popes are infallible, but they are authoritative.
 
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