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Guilherme123
Guest
I can understand why slavery was tolerated in the Old Testament, but I can’t understand why slavery was not condemn in the New Testament. Not only the New Testament did not condemn slavery, but also instructed slaves to obey their masters (Eph 6:5-8, Col 3:22-24, 1Tim 6:1-2, 1Pet 2:18, Titus 2:9-10), which in the end only helped pro-slavery people to justify their opinions for centuries.
Any explanation on why the New Testament is so tolerant with slavery and why were the slaves instructed to be submissives? Because I’m having a hard time trying to justify the immorality of slavery with what was left by the apostles.
Any explanation on why the New Testament is so tolerant with slavery and why were the slaves instructed to be submissives? Because I’m having a hard time trying to justify the immorality of slavery with what was left by the apostles.
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