NFP and Contraception. Just curious, not attacking the Church

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I recognize the fact that the validity of all of the churches moral claims rest on the various individual delicate issues and the cogent arguments for them. I am desperate to understand the church on this issue so that I am confident in her when approaching other issues. I don’t see how people can just “disagree” with the church on one issue and still claim to be catholic, and I don’t want to be one of those people. However, my reasoning has not been sufficiently satisfied on this issue and I must be honest with myself. I do believe that if I hear the right explanation then I will accept the difference between NFP and contraception. There have been cases in the past where I didn’t see the church’s logic on an issue but, eventually over a period of time realized the churches position to be correct. I am very anxious to put this subject to rest
 
In its purest form based on unitive and procreative elements, sex should be indulged in only with the intention of having children or on impulse without premeditation with regards to timing or anything else thereby truly being open to the possibility of conception.
This is not what the Catholic Church teaches.

Sex is an expression of a couple’s marital vows, which mirror the love that Christ has for the Church. There’s no stipulation from the Church about sexual spontaneity or even for having a desire for children when engaging in conjugal intimacy.

The confusion between NFP and contraception arises in part when people mistakenly believe that since sex must be fruitful (i.e., procreative) that it is therefore wrong to engage in sex when one knows that one cannot or should not have more children. On the contrary, in Humane Vitae as well as JPII’s Theology of the Body, the Church has spoken at length about the requirements of responsible parenthood, which may at times even demand of married couples restraint in the timing of their intercourse, since it is not at all loving to spontaneously request sex from a spouse when the family is unable to care for the resulting children. The Church has repeatedly affirmed the moral legitimacy of relying on a couple’s knowledge of the woman’s fertility to space children. It is not at all selfish or impure to do so for the right reasons. It is only the decision to deliberately sterilize the sexual act (by taking a pill or using a condom, for example) when sex does take place that is contrary to natural law and gravely wrong.
The intention of NFP is no different from any other form of contraception - to avoid as far as possible conception and to enjoy the act by avoiding of procreation aspect.
Intention matters, and it’s important for married couples to evaluate their reasons for practicing NFP to ensure that they are not being selfish. However, it is not wrong to have sex with one’s spouse when one knows that children will not result from a particular act of intercourse. For example, couples who are already pregnant, or who are menopausal or infertile are still permitted (encouraged?) to have sex. In a similar vein, couples are permitted to have sex even when they are temporarily infertile, as happens during most of the woman’s menstrual cycle. Again, the sin is not in having sex when one knows one cannot get pregnant or even in having sex and not wanting to get pregnant. The sin is in deliberately separating from the sexual act the procreative element. Couples cannot do this simply by refraining from sexual intercourse during the fertile period. The sin of contraception requires an intentional altering of the sexual act as it was designed by God, either by mutilating a body part, inhibiting a natural physiological process, interrupting coitus to avoid the transmission of fluids, blocking access to organs or fluids, etc. Natural sex that ends with the husband ejaculating inside his wife is ordered to procreation even when it occurs at a time when the couples knows that children are unlikely or unable to result.
Thank you Father for loving me unconditionally.
I really like your signature quote.

God bless.
 
I have problems understanding the difference between NFP and contraception too. The way I see it, both are ways of having sex while intentionally avoiding pregnancy…
And you would be correct. That is really not the issue. The Church accepts that couples may space or even avoid having children if the reason is just and serious.

The problem is not the ends achived, but rather the means.

Look at it this way. The Church does not have a problem with owning a laptop computer. One can get that laptop via earning money via legitimate employment or via theft.

So the acceptable end ( owning a laptop) can be achived via moral or immoral means.

The immorality of articifical contraception lies in the proper understanding of the marital act. It is a complete giving of oneself to the other in a unitive act. Artifical contraception denies that. It is a holding back of one element of oneself that God created, their fertility.

How much of a loving act would it be to say to your spouse during the marital act," I love you, except for your face, please cover it up and then I will have sex with you"?.

But that is what happens when artificial contraception is used. You are asking your spouse to ‘cover up’ their fertility.

NFP, on the other hand, accepts the whole person, with their fertility exactly as God created it.

So it’s not the ends that are necessarily wrong, but the means.

And BTW, if the reason for postponing pregnancy are not just, then even the use NFP is sinful, because then the ends are immoral. And just means do not make a sinful end just.
 
Artifical contraception denies that. It is a holding back of one element of oneself that God created, their fertility.
Except by definition NFP removes fertility from sex, except through behavior. i.e. Concentrate on an act, ignore any patterns of behavior. So, fertility is held back, just not through an individual act. If you want to say fertility is NOT held back, then why is NFP so successful? I would say you need to correct the statement to say “fertility is withheld, but not through any individual act.” It is far more accurate.
How much of a loving act would it be to say to your spouse during the marital act," I love you, except for your face, please cover it up and then I will have sex with you"?.
Absolutely horrible analogy. NFP could just as easily be “I love you, but not tonight, please go cover your face. Maybe we will have sex tomorrow.”
But that is what happens when artificial contraception is used. You are asking your spouse to ‘cover up’ their fertility.
NFP, on the other hand, accepts the whole person, with their fertility exactly as God created it.
OK, if ABC is asking your spouse to cover up, NFP is asking them to leave the house for a week. Selective language.

And you are assuming God meant use a womans cycle as a way to avoid pregnancy? I am not saying you can’t, but again, some very odd choice of words.
 
This means God can’t change the date of ovulation in order to increase the likelihood of pregnancy without the couple taking preventitive means.
I’m sorry, do I see the words “God can’t”?
 
Except by definition NFP removes fertility from sex, except through behavior. i.e. Concentrate on an act, ignore any patterns of behavior. So, fertility is held back, just not through an individual act. If you want to say fertility is NOT held back, then why is NFP so successful? I would say you need to correct the statement to say “fertility is withheld, but not through any individual act.” It is far more accurate.
No, NFP didn’t remove any fertilty, God did. ABC changes the fertilty, NFP uses what God has created.
Absolutely horrible analogy. NFP could just as easily be “I love you, but not tonight, please go cover your face. Maybe we will have sex tomorrow.”
But a true one. ABC denies, or attempts to cover up, something equally as part of the person as their face.

[quopte]
OK, if ABC is asking your spouse to cover up, NFP is asking them to leave the house for a week. Selective language.

No, simply that the couple chooses not to make use of their Sacrament at that time.
And you are assuming God meant use a womans cycle as a way to avoid pregnancy? I am not saying you can’t, but again, some very odd choice of words.
He made woman infertile at that time, did He not?
 
The difference, as those who subscribe to the teaching would put it, is that you are either working with nature or altering nature.
For example “I want to have a parade- I will wait for a day when I don’t think it is going to rain” vs. “I want to have a parade. I will find a day, and seed the clouds the few days before to make it incredibly unlikely that it is going to rain”

…is there an official position on cloud seeding?
 
The Church asks us to parent responsible. Having too many children can be as irresponsible as well. NFP involves a mindset of accepting how God designed us - and God’s intention for us.

When you look at couples who practice NFP, you will probably notice a handful of things. 1) they probably take their faith more seriously, 2) they probably have larger families.

The reason for the second is not that NFP does not work. But rather as they take their faith more seriously, they become more aware of what a blessing from God their children really are. I don’t think ABC has the same effect - ever. NFP allows God to work within couples in a very subtle way - changing their hearts.
 
No, NFP didn’t remove any fertilty, God did. ABC changes the fertilty, NFP uses what God has created.
Well, God created a womans cycle. God did not create a system to avoid fertility with 99% percent accuracy, nor did he make us avoid sex when a child may result.

I think you are missing my point. If fertile sex results in a child, then NFP falls outside of it. I am NOT saying NFP creates the infertility. NFP creates a situation where sex is removed from children, ie, fertility.

Maybe we are using the wrong words.
No, simply that the couple chooses not to make use of their Sacrament at that time.
And that would be specifically to avoid conception, or, “fertility”. This is an unavoidable fact.

You are saying ABC is wrong because it “covers up” fertility. OK. NFP avoids fertility. I have still never seen how this is reconciled.

I get that ABC is an immoral mean. NFP is not. Where I lose the logic is when we look at the reasons the means of ABC is immoral. As soon as you look at the “why’s” of what makes the means of ABC is immoral, NFP fails as well. Even if none of the means of NFP are deemed immoral, it can still be wrong by all the same metrics we apply to ABC. The valid means seem to be some sort of shield to avoid answering the larger question.
 
Well, God created a womans cycle. God did not create a system to avoid fertility with 99% percent accuracy, nor did he make us avoid sex when a child may result.
Actually, that is exactly what God created. He created a woman’s fertility and all the external signs. Or are you refering to God’s INTENT when He created female fertility and all the external signs ( temp, mucus etc…)

I think it would be a little far fetched for any mortal to make claims as to God’s intent on any element of creation. Rather, all we can do is observe and reference with God’s Word.

What we DO know is that

1 God created a woman’s fertility in such a way that the woman is mostly infertile except at certain points.
2 This points are physically evident and knowable via Reason
3 The sexual act is not prohibited when it is reasonable known that the woman is infertile ( Abraham and Sarah, for example,) or simply menopause
4 St. Paul informs us that couples may mutually choose to forgo marital relations, as long as they return to relations later.
I think you are missing my point. If fertile sex results in a child, then NFP falls outside of it. I am NOT saying NFP creates the infertility. NFP creates a situation where sex is removed from children, ie, fertility.
Maybe we are using the wrong words.
And that would be specifically to avoid conception, or, “fertility”. This is an unavoidable fact.
You are saying ABC is wrong because it “covers up” fertility. OK. NFP avoids fertility. I have still never seen how this is reconciled.
I think you are confusing the term ‘fertility’ with ‘being fertile’. Fertility is the entire system, including both fertile and infertile states. So NFP does not remove sex from fertility, only from the particular state of being fertile, and it does so in accordance with how God created a woman’s fertility.

You would concur that a couple having marital relations after menopause is different from using contraception? In other words, you don’t claim that such a couple is using contraception, do you?

Rather, the couple is still using the martial act within the gift of fertility as God created it.

The same is true for a couple using NFP.

Remember, the objection is not that the couple is postponing children, the Church does not object to that ( assuming it is done for just reason). But rather the means.
Even if none of the means of NFP are deemed immoral, it can still be wrong by all the same metrics we apply to ABC. The valid means seem to be some sort of shield to avoid answering the larger question
What larger question are you refering to exactly?

I agree that even NFP can be used unjustly, for selfish ends. But both the ends and the means have to be evaluated. ABC is a different means, an immoral one.
 
Actually, that is exactly what God created. He created a woman’s fertility and all the external signs. Or are you refering to God’s INTENT when He created female fertility and all the external signs ( temp, mucus etc…)
Yes. Nothing I have seen points to God creating this system for the purpose of engaging only in intentionally sterile sex. One does not lead to the other.
I think it would be a little far fetched for any mortal to make claims as to God’s intent on any element of creation. Rather, all we can do is observe and reference with God’s Word.
Mmmmmm, dont we try to divine “God intent” on a nearly constant basis? Isnt the Churches teaching on this matter largely based on its interpretation? 🤷
1 God created a woman’s fertility in such a way that the woman is mostly infertile except at certain points.
2 This points are physically evident and knowable via Reason
3 The sexual act is not prohibited when it is reasonable known that the woman is infertile ( Abraham and Sarah, for example,) or simply menopause
4 St. Paul informs us that couples may mutually choose to forgo marital relations, as long as they return to relations later.
OK, but none of this references NFP.
I think you are confusing the term ‘fertility’ with ‘being fertile’. Fertility is the entire system, including both fertile and infertile states. So NFP does not remove sex from fertility, only from the particular state of being fertile, and it does so in accordance with how God created a woman’s fertility.
Well, I guess I would say that the “entire system” of fertility you mention would include producing children. Or as you say, it removes “being fertile” from “fertility”. If you can take them apart, then yes, your logic works. I would just have to disagree to that point.
You would concur that a couple having marital relations after menopause is different from using contraception? In other words, you don’t claim that such a couple is using contraception, do you?
Yes and No, respectively… 🤷
Rather, the couple is still using the martial act within the gift of fertility as God created it.
The same is true for a couple using NFP.
The act, yes. The behavior and intent, no.
Remember, the objection is not that the couple is postponing children, the Church does not object to that ( assuming it is done for just reason). But rather the means.
Fine with that. But my point is that just means is not my objection.
What larger question are you refering to exactly?
I agree that even NFP can be used unjustly, for selfish ends. But both the ends and the means have to be evaluated. ABC is a different means, an immoral one.
Well, I guess I would ask for the reasons that ABC is rejected by the Church. (Which is fine, I have no disagreements) Do you have a quick list of what these are?
 
The act, yes. The behavior and intent, no.
do you mind if i ask for a little clarification on this? Do you see a couple that continues sexual relations after menopause as having an intent that is outside of the gift of fertility as God created it?

If I am misunderstanding your meaning please let me know.
 
do you mind if i ask for a little clarification on this? Do you see a couple that continues sexual relations after menopause as having an intent that is outside of the gift of fertility as God created it?

If I am misunderstanding your meaning please let me know.
Ah, the law has an answer for this. It is the doctrine of the “fertile octogenarian.” This is a legal fiction that a woman of any age can get pregnant and have children. On another level, just because a woman is past menopause doesn’t mean she can’t get pregnant. Look at Sarah in the OT!
 
"Brendan:
1 God created a woman’s fertility in such a way that the woman is mostly infertile except at certain points.
2 This points are physically evident and knowable via Reason
3 The sexual act is not prohibited when it is reasonable known that the woman is infertile ( Abraham and Sarah, for example,) or simply menopause
4 St. Paul informs us that couples may mutually choose to forgo marital relations, as long as they return to relations later.
OK, but none of this references NFP.
All of Brendan’s points are relevant to NFP. NFP is simply knowing that God created a woman’s fertilility systen so that she’s often unable to conceive children and then identifying the physical biomarkers that God created which indicate fertility (points one and two) so that couples can make decisions about when to have sex. Armed with this knowledge, couples then choose to time their intercourse so that they are more likley to conceive or they abstain from sexual intercourse when the biomarkers indicate that the wife is likely to conceive. Brendan is pointing out that of course married couples are allowed to have sex when they are pretty sure the woman is infertile (for example, during pregnancy, menopause, etc), thus demonstrating the legitimacy of couples making use of the naturally infertile periods (his point three) and then explains that likewise, couples are permitted to abtain for periods of time as well, which NFP couples may choose to do if they are trying to avoid having children.
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PassingThru:
Well, I guess I would ask for the reasons that ABC is rejected by the Church. (Which is fine, I have no disagreements) Do you have a quick list of what these are?
Contraception intentionally sterilize the sexual act by separating the procreative element of intercourse from the unitive element. This happens when a couples takes the sexual act as it was designed by God and physically alters it in some way so as to prevcent conception (i.e, by mutilating a body part so that it impedes sperm penetration, or taking a drug to prevent ovulation, or blocking the transmission of body fluids). Couples cannot practice contraception merely by abstaining from sex during the woman’s fertile period, if when they do engage in intercouse, they do not alter the sexual act. NFP couples do not alter the sexual act during the fertile period, they just avoid it.

You don’t seem so keen on analogies, but I’ll try another popular one that also emphasis the “contrary to natural law” part of the objection to contraception. Say that two women want to lose weight. One of them eats as much cake and pizza and fatty foods as she desires. After every meal, not wanting to experience the consequences of her food decisions, she forces herself to throw up. The second woman decides that instead of eating whatever she wants and then throwing up, she’ll simply eat less. She abtains for much of the time from cake and pizza and fatty foods because she’s unprepared for the consequences. The second woman doesn’t have to vomit up calories to avoid gaining weight because her decision to eat or not eat certain foods was based on her knowledge of what was likley to cause her to gain weight. So it is with couples who use contraception or NFP. Both may have a legitimate reason to prevent pregnancy. The contraceptive couple engages in intercourse and then “vomits up” the natural consequence of sex during the fertile period. The NFP couple chooses to abstain during the woman’s fertile period and enjoy sex when pregnancy is not likely to result. One method is gravely contrary to natural law; the other is completely in keeping with it.

Of course, the CCC would answer your question much more elequantly:
Periodic continence, that is, the methods of birth regulation based on self-observation and the use of infertile periods, is in conformity with the objective criteria of morality. These methods respect the bodies of the spouses, encourage tenderness between them, and favor the education of an authentic freedom. In contrast, “every action which, whether in anticipation of the conjugal act, or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible” is intrinsically evil:

Thus the innate language that expresses the total reciprocal self-giving of husband and wife is overlaid, through contraception, by an objectively contradictory language, namely, that of not giving oneself totally to the other. This leads not only to a positive refusal to be open to life but also to a falsification of the inner truth of conjugal love, which is called upon to give itself in personal totality. . . . The difference, both anthropological and moral, between contraception and recourse to the rhythm of the cycle . . . involves in the final analysis two irreconcilable concepts of the human person and of human sexuality.
God bless,
 
Nodito, that was a good analogy between eating and the foreknowledge of what kind of foods will keep you healthy.
 
do you mind if i ask for a little clarification on this? Do you see a couple that continues sexual relations after menopause as having an intent that is outside of the gift of fertility as God created it?

If I am misunderstanding your meaning please let me know.
No. A post-menopausal woman is not actively participating in her lack of fertility.
 
All of Brendan’s points are relevant to NFP. NFP is simply knowing that God created a woman’s fertilility systen so that she’s often unable to conceive children and then identifying the physical biomarkers that God created which indicate fertility (points one and two) so that couples can make decisions about when to have sex. Armed with this knowledge, couples then choose to time their intercourse so that they are more likley to conceive or they abstain from sexual intercourse when the biomarkers indicate that the wife is likely to conceive. Brendan is pointing out that of course married couples are allowed to have sex when they are pretty sure the woman is infertile thus demonstrating the legitimacy of couples making use of the naturally infertile periods (his point three) and then explains that likewise, couples are permitted to abtain for periods of time as well, which NFP couples may choose to do if they are trying to avoid having children.
Everything you said is true. However, you never are very clear on the reality of what NFP is. You never say: “NFP is ensuring as best as knowingly possible that all sex between couples in a given period of time is sterile.” You also never say: “Couple practice NFP with the express intent to enjoy sex with there spouse while ensuring that pregnancy will not result.” It is also never mentioned that “I will reject my spouse at any point that pregnancy may occur, no matter how we feel at that time.”

These are not said, because they sound bad. The previous list, while nice and accurate, pretty much glossed over how NFP is practiced, making it more of a technical roadmap of how not having an instance of sex is OK, but ignoring the reasoning and planning that goes into successful long term planning via NFP. It is accurate, but sorely lacking.
Contraception intentionally sterilize the sexual act by separating the procreative element of intercourse from the unitive element. This happens when a couples takes the sexual act as it was designed by God and physically alters it in some way so as to prevcent conception (i.e, by mutilating a body part so that it impedes sperm penetration, or taking a drug to prevent ovulation, or blocking the transmission of body fluids). Couples cannot practice contraception merely by abstaining from sex during the woman’s fertile period, if when they do engage in intercouse, they do not alter the sexual act. NFP couples do not alter the sexual act during the fertile period, they just avoid it.
So, if we apply the tried and true “procreative and unitive” it can only broken during an act, but not during a process. I will accept most any reason to reject ABC, as they are the Churches to declare. What I fail to see is how the principal of “procreative and unitive” is not violated in the practice of NFP. All I have ever heard is that it only applies to the act, therefore NFP gets a pass. You just repeated it above. I will declare that NFP separates Unative from Procreative. Can you demonstrate how this is false? I will assume I do not need to explain how I came to this rather obvious conclusion. Please, if possible, avoid explaining how sex is only an individual act, therefore NFP can’t violate this principal. If that is your only logic, just say so up front.
You don’t seem so keen on analogies, but I’ll try another popular one that also emphasis the “contrary to natural law” part of the objection to contraception. Say that two women want to lose weight. One of them eats as much cake and pizza and fatty foods as she desires. After every meal, not wanting to experience the consequences of her food decisions, she forces herself to throw up. The second woman decides that instead of eating whatever she wants and then throwing up, she’ll simply eat less. She abtains for much of the time from cake and pizza and fatty foods because she’s unprepared for the consequences. The second woman doesn’t have to vomit up calories to avoid gaining weight because her decision to eat or not eat certain foods was based on her knowledge of what was likley to cause her to gain weight. So it is with couples who use contraception or NFP. Both may have a legitimate reason to prevent pregnancy. The contraceptive couple engages in intercourse and then “vomits up” the natural consequence of sex during the fertile period. The NFP couple chooses to abstain during the woman’s fertile period and enjoy sex when pregnancy is not likely to result. One method is gravely contrary to natural law; the other is completely in keeping with it.
Generally I am not a fan, this is true. I am not a fan of yours as it is, well, awful. Your “diet” person needs to find a way to have as much food as she wants at least half, maybe 2/3rds, or maybe even a 3/4ths or more of the time. Then it would be good.

Change your analogy to be the diet person knows that every afternoon she tends to get very nauseous, and her digestive system hits high gear and clears itself out. This happens 3 of every 4 weeks like clockwork. Knowings this, during these times she can eat as much as she wants, but in order to stay thin, she makes sure to eat salads during that 4th week to avoid any weight gain.

There, that is better.

You if you want to explain how NFP is in keeping with natural law, I would be interested to hear.

I guess my point is none of this takes what makes ABC wrong, and explains how NFP does not violate it. I understand that the means of ABC can be counted as wrong. But even if NFP has all 100% valid means, its end can still make the process of NFP wrong. ie, even if none of the individual steps, process, sex, non-sex etc of NFP does nothing to separate unitive from procreative, the *process *of NFP can still accomplish this. Can you see logically how this can be true? And if so, how does NFP not fall foul?
 
Everything you said is true. However, you never are very clear on the reality of what NFP is. You never say: “NFP is ensuring as best as knowingly possible that all sex between couples in a given period of time is sterile.” You also never say: “Couple practice NFP with the express intent to enjoy sex with there spouse while ensuring that pregnancy will not result.” It is also never mentioned that “I will reject my spouse at any point that pregnancy may occur, no matter how we feel at that time.”

These are not said, because they sound bad. The previous list, while nice and accurate, pretty much glossed over how NFP is practiced, making it more of a technical roadmap of how not having an instance of sex is OK, but ignoring the reasoning and planning that goes into successful long term planning via NFP. It is accurate, but sorely lacking.

So, if we apply the tried and true “procreative and unitive” it can only broken during an act, but not during a process. I will accept most any reason to reject ABC, as they are the Churches to declare. What I fail to see is how the principal of “procreative and unitive” is not violated in the practice of NFP. All I have ever heard is that it only applies to the act, therefore NFP gets a pass. You just repeated it above. I will declare that NFP separates Unative from Procreative. Can you demonstrate how this is false? I will assume I do not need to explain how I came to this rather obvious conclusion. Please, if possible, avoid explaining how sex is only an individual act, therefore NFP can’t violate this principal. If that is your only logic, just say so up front.

Generally I am not a fan, this is true. I am not a fan of yours as it is, well, awful. Your “diet” person needs to find a way to have as much food as she wants at least half, maybe 2/3rds, or maybe even a 3/4ths or more of the time. Then it would be good.

Change your analogy to be the diet person knows that every afternoon she tends to get very nauseous, and her digestive system hits high gear and clears itself out. This happens 3 of every 4 weeks like clockwork. Knowings this, during these times she can eat as much as she wants, but in order to stay thin, she makes sure to eat salads during that 4th week to avoid any weight gain.

There, that is better.

You if you want to explain how NFP is in keeping with natural law, I would be interested to hear.

I guess my point is none of this takes what makes ABC wrong, and explains how NFP does not violate it. I understand that the means of ABC can be counted as wrong. But even if NFP has all 100% valid means, its end can still make the process of NFP wrong. ie, even if none of the individual steps, process, sex, non-sex etc of NFP does nothing to separate unitive from procreative, the *process *of NFP can still accomplish this. Can you see logically how this can be true? And if so, how does NFP not fall foul?
Is it wrong to not conceive a child? Depends. Is there a legitimate reason to space or delay child bearing? If yes, can you see that putting on a condom during sex is very different than abstaining during fertile time?
 
Is it wrong to not conceive a child? Depends. Is there a legitimate reason to space or delay child bearing? If yes, can you see that putting on a condom during sex is very different than abstaining during fertile time?
Different, sure. I said rather specifically in my post that I can see how the means are different, and one can conclude that the act of ABC violates any number of principals in order to be deemed as such. What I have not seen is how NFP fails to violate these same principals merely by each act of NFP being morally benign.

I have posted before my example of using a “contraption” to kill a person, in comparison to a gun. Even though all of the means of a contraption are morally neutral, in the end no one questions it is every bit as responsible for killing as a gun. Here, I am pointing out that the successful practice of NFP separates procreation from sex. To me, this is indisputable. Can anyone explain how this is wrong without simply relying on the act of ABC being wrong, the act of NFP is neutral, ergo, NFP is fine. It would never work for a second in a trail in my above example, yet here we are expecting different results. I have yet to see any logic as to how we do not apply this very basic logic to NFP.
 
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PassingThru:
You never say: “NFP is ensuring as best as knowingly possible that all sex between couples in a given period of time is sterile.” You also never say: “Couple practice NFP with the express intent to enjoy sex with there spouse while ensuring that pregnancy will not result.”
I didn’t say those things because NFP can’t be boiled down to couples trying to enjoy sex while keeping it sterile. My husband and I, for example, have been using NFP for several months to try to achieve pregnancy. But if you only want to discuss those couples that are trying to avoid pregnancy then sure, couples practice NFP with the express intent to be able to enjoy marital intimacy with their spouse while trying to ensure that pregnancy will not result.
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PassingThru:
The previous list…ignor[ed] the reasoning and planning that goes into successful long term planning via NFP. It is accurate, but sorely lacking.
I didn’t go into “motive” in my explanation at all because I had previously granted that couples practicing NFP and couples practicing contraception can have very similar motives and end goals. Both couples seek to avoid pregnancy without completely abstaining from sex. I don’t think there’s anything wrong with that. Neither does the Catholic Church. Because both types of “birth control” have similar aims, I had understood our discussion as one being primarily about means and not intent (or what you’re calling “reasoning and planning”).
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PassingThru:
So, if we apply the tried and true “procreative and unitive” it can only broken during an act, but not during a process.
Well, what is a process except a series of acts? And how can a process be evil if the acts that comprise that process are not evil?
PassinThru:
What I fail to see is how the principal of “procreative and unitive” is not violated in the practice of NFP. All I have ever heard is that it only applies to the act, therefore NFP gets a pass. … Please, if possible, avoid explaining how sex is only an individual act, therefore NFP can’t violate this principal. If that is your only logic, just say so up front.
That’s exactly my logic. Each act of intercourse is an individual act. And the elements you reference are intrinsic to each act of intercourse, not to a couples’ overall child-rearing plans. I’m sorry if you find me tedious and repetitive, but I’m not sure how else to address this concern.
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PassingThru:
I am not a fan of yours as it is, well, awful…Change your analogy to be the diet person knows that every afternoon she tends to get very nauseous, and her digestive system hits high gear and clears itself out.
Hmm, I still like my analogy better. 🙂
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PassingThru:
If you want to explain how NFP is in keeping with natural law, I would be interested to hear.
Natural law does not mean how things would be in the wild (as if among animals). Natural law is the idea that people and things flourish best when they are treated in accord with their design (their nature). So, for example, birds were designed with wings with which they use to fly. If a bird was intentionally maimed so that it could not fly, the bird would have difficulty thriving. Plants, likewise, were designed to take in sunlight and water. If they are deprived any of these things, they don’t do as well. Humans were also designed a certain way. Our nature is such that when women have intercourse during the fertile period, they may get pregnant. When women have intercourse during their infertile period, they will not get pregnant. This is the nature of a woman’s fertility. To say that NFP is in keeping with natural law is only to say that NFP, unlike contraception, does not violate the nature of woman.
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PassingThru:
I have posted before my example of using a “contraption” to kill a person, in comparison to a gun. Even though all of the means of a contraption are morally neutral, in the end no one questions it is every bit as responsible for killing as a gun. Here, I am pointing out that the successful practice of NFP separates procreation from sex. To me, this is indisputable.
I’ve haven’t read your example previously, but it’s interesting. The way it reads now, however, it’s flawed. For one, the means of a contraption are not morally neutral if they are used to kill someone. But I think what you’re trying to argue that NFP and contraception both kill fertility, albeit in different ways. But that’s not true. NFP doesn’t kill a woman’s fertility, it just… watches it.

Can I play with your example a bit? Suppose two CAF members have elderly grandmothers who are really suffering. The grandmothers are terminally ill and in serious pain. Both men truly believe it would be best if their grandmothers were to pass away, so they would no longer suffer. Can we agree that both couples have the same hope?

One man decides to take matters into his own hands. He takes a gun (or a contraption or a knife or whatever) and kills his grandmother in her sleep. The second man decides to wait a couple of weeks to see if the grandmother’s situation improves, and the grandmother dies naturally and goes to heaven. Both men “accomplished” the same goal, right? Except that the means are very different and thus the two choices were fundamentally opposed, even though both men had the same intent. Such it is with fertility. The contracepting couple kills their fertility. They use a gun or a contraption or a knife (pills, condoms, sterilization, whatever). They do something to render them infertile. The NFP couple doesn’t touch their fertility. They just wait and see what happens. And when God renders them naturally infertile, they can be pleased, just as a family member might rejoice when a loved one is finally able to join God in heaven.

You keep me on my toes, PassingThru. God bless.
 
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