C
Chrono13
Guest
A lot of things.
A lot of things.
Don’t contracept. (Or take direct action to interfere with the generative aspect of the marital act.)Laws of generation? What does this mean?
I’m not sure. Preoccupation with one’s beloved to the point of distraction, maybe.Here is another quote of St. Francis de Sales:
" Marital intercourse is certainly holy, lawful and praiseworthy in itself and profitable to society, yet in certain circumstances it can prove dangerous, as when* through excess the soul is made… sick with venial sin***, or through the violation and perversion of its primary end, killed by mortal sin; such perversion, detestable in proportion to its departure from the true order, being always mortal sin, for it is never lawful to exclude the primary end of marriage which is the procreation of children. "
What is "“excess” which makes sexuality dangerous for soul in venial matter?
I hope so. St. Augustine, like St. Francois de Sales, lacked infallability, but his love of God was so deep that his writing is spiritually invaluable for his audience.Isn’t this a trace of Augustine?
Laws of generation in his writings are more or less same as in Augustinian writ.Don’t contracept.
(Or take direct action to interfere with the generative aspect of the marital act.)
There is only one way to be preoccupied with another being in stoic ethic. If you have sex without desire of begetting. Everything above this “use” is excess of venial fault (as St. Augustine writes). And this is what seems to be suggested.I’m not sure. Preoccupation with one’s beloved to the point of distraction, maybe.I hope so.
Indeed. Now, do they approve sex without intent of begetting?St. Augustine, like St. Francois de Sales, lacked infallability, but his love of God was so deep that his writing is spiritually invaluable for his audience.
This is fine. But at one point, we need to understand that marital blessings of procreation, sacrament and mutual love were not part of sexuality, but marriage in general terms.It is essential to assent to the teaching of Christ through His Church.
Blessed John Paul II considers “the belief that everything to do with sex can only be an object for use, that sex merely gives the opportunity for sexual release and does not open the way to love between people. This view smacks of Manichaeism, and is incompatible with the view of physical and sexual matters found in the Book of Genesis, and more particularly in the New Testament.” Love & Responsibility, Collins, 1981, p 188].
It is incompatible also with the Fathers as well as the illustrious St Augustine who specifically names offspring, conjugal faith and the sacrament as blessings of matrimony:
From Casti Connubii, Pius XI, 1930
10. Now when We come to explain, Venerable Brethren, what are the blessings that God has attached to true matrimony, and how great they are, there occur to Us the words of that illustrious Doctor of the Church whom We commemorated recently in Our Encyclical Ad salutem on the occasion of the fifteenth centenary of his death:[9] “These,” says St. Augustine, “are all the blessings of matrimony on account of which matrimony itself is a blessing; offspring, conjugal faith and the sacrament.”[10] And how under these three heads is contained a splendid summary of the whole doctrine of Christian marriage, the holy Doctor himself expressly declares when he said: “By conjugal faith it is provided that there should be no carnal intercourse outside the marriage bond with another man or woman; with regard to offspring, that children should be begotten of love, tenderly cared for and educated in a religious atmosphere; finally, in its sacramental aspect that the marriage bond should not be broken and that a husband or wife, if separated, should not be joined to another even for the sake of offspring. This we regard as the law of marriage by which the fruitfulness of nature is adorned and the evil of incontinence is restrained.”[11]
9. Encycl. Ad salutem, 20 April 1930
10. St. August., De bono coniug., cap. 24, n. 32.
11. St. August., De Gen. ad litt., lib. IX, cap. 7, n. 12.
What a misunderstanding and mighty phobia, as offspring + conjugal faith + the sacrament, attest – fornication and adultery are outside of marriage – and, apart from those sins, only sexuality in marriage is referred to by the Fathers.Chrono13
But at one point, we need to understand that marital blessings of procreation, sacrament and mutual love were not part of sexuality, but marriage in general terms.
So you take “pardonable” to mean venial sin?Reread once again:
“This gratification incurs not the imputation of guilt on account of marriage, but receives permission on account of marriage. This, therefore, must be reckoned among the praises of matrimony; that, on its own account, it makes pardonable that which does not essentially appertain to itself.”
Put in other words:
Marriage is not guilty because of such (sinfull) intercourse, since it makes sinfulness pardonable.
People who have sex without desire of children are doing it wrong, but their transgression is pardonable.
I don’t understand what you mean. Could you please elaborate?What a misunderstanding and mighty phobia, as offspring + conjugal faith + the sacrament, attest – fornication and adultery are outside of marriage – and, apart from those sins, only sexuality in marriage is referred to by the Fathers.
You were prompted ten posts later to explain why would “potion mixing” Didache forbids count as contraception. Pagan herbalism was also used to increase fertility or cure diseases. You ignored this point. And repeat the quote again.We’ve seen in post #226 that the DIDACHE, one of the earliest written disciplinary documents from the infant Church (100-150 A.D.) condemned both abortion and contraception,
Is it fair to say that Decretals of Pope Gregory and Council of Trent forbid contraception on other base then Casti Connubii or Humanae Vitae? Can you at least allow that possibility?as well as the Fathers of the Church, the Decretals of Pope Gregory IX (1148-1241) the Council of Trent and the infallible doctrine in Casti Connubii of Pius XI and in *Humanae Vitae *of Paul VI – consistent and from the earliest times.
If contraception was banned using stoic logic, you surely have a bumpy ride talking about “doctrine without interruption” or when speaking about “universality of time”.Those who claim superiority to papal doctrine which has been clearly offered have no claim to truth and fidelity against Casti Connubii, in which Pius XI refers to that “doctrine handed down from the beginning without interruption” which fact alone makes it an infallible teaching according to the “universality of time” which argument was used also by Pius XII for the dogma of Our Lady’s Assumption (1950).
No. Augustine said sex without intent of conceiving is venial sin in case of married, and thus “pardonable”. The latter seems to mean of “non-mortal” sinfulness.So you take “pardonable” to mean venial sin?
Also do you read it as:
This gratification incurs not the imputation of guilt on account of marriage.
I read the entire sentence:This gratification incurs not the imputation of guilt, on account of marriage.
You’re reading something that’s not in the text. St. Augustine doesn’t say the sex is sinful. He says there is sin in the situation, so we could argue more logically that the sin is due to fallen human nature which, unlike sex, is not divinely created.I have said that sex without such intent is sinful (evil by it’s nature) yet permitted/ tolerated/ allowed because of the marital bond. This bond doesn’t make it without sin, but grants pardon for it.
Why does St. Augustine make such special mention of this ‘pardonable transgression’? Isn’t every transgression pardonable?Reread once again:
“This gratification incurs not the imputation of guilt on account of marriage, but receives permission on account of marriage. This, therefore, must be reckoned among the praises of matrimony; that, on its own account, it makes pardonable that which does not essentially appertain to itself.”
Put in other words:
Marriage is not guilty because of such (sinfull) intercourse, since it makes sinfulness pardonable.
People who have sex without desire of children are doing it wrong, but their transgression is pardonable.
Maybe I’m just being dense right now, but I’m having a hard time reading that sentence as anything other than saying “it’s ok in marriage” as in non-sinful.No. Augustine said sex without intent of conceiving is venial sin in case of married, and thus “pardonable”. The latter seems to mean of “non-mortal” sinfulness.
I read the entire sentence:
“This gratification incurs not the imputation of guilt on account of marriage, but receives permission on account of marriage.”
I’ll take your word for it, you’re better versed inthe ECFs than I am. I do think they were getting their inspiration from the same place.Laws of generation in his writings are more or less same as in Augustinian writ.
I just meant maybe love makes you easily distracted at work.There is only one way to be preoccupied with another being in stoic ethic. If you have sex without desire of begetting. Everything above this “use” is excess of venial fault (as St. Augustine writes). And this is what seems to be suggested.
Yes. For further details, see our pages long conversation.Indeed. Now, do they approve sex without intent of begetting?
Sorry I missed this Mary Gail. In the other thread, Image of God attributes that quote to St. Francois de Sales’s work entitled Introduction to the Devout Life.Would someone be able to give me the origin of the St. Francis de Sales quote (name of document or talk) Thanks.
I’m reading the same thing.Maybe I’m just being dense right now, but I’m having a hard time reading that sentence as anything other than saying “it’s ok in marriage” as in non-sinful.
Just look at the paragraph…You’re reading something that’s not in the text. St. Augustine doesn’t say the sex is sinful. He says there is sin in the situation, so we could argue more logically that the sin is due to fallen human nature which, unlike sex, is not divinely created.
If imperfect means without desire of begetting, yes. But I suspect Paul went so far. There are some arguments which can be drawn for that. But discussion for another time.Why does St. Augustine make such special mention of this 'pardonable
I don’t think St. Paul or St. Augustine would permit anyone to do something sinful. The fact that we may do it imperfectly dosen’t change the inherent goodness of sex. Sex is so good in fact, that saints have given us permission to enjoy it even in our imperfect, earthly way. The ‘pardonable transgression’ that I see is being human.
Yes. You are dense.Maybe I’m just being dense right now, but I’m having a hard time reading that sentence as anything other than saying “it’s ok in marriage” as in non-sinful.
Simply, the Fathers and Doctors considered sexuality in marriage, and they considered it in the three main attributes of offspring + conjugal faith + the sacrament. Sexuality outside of marriage was fornication or adultery or bestiality or sodomy. The repeated mighty aversion to these facts is the phobia.Chrono13, #563
Originally Posted by Abu
What a misunderstanding and mighty phobia, as offspring + conjugal faith + the sacrament, attest – fornication and adultery are outside of marriage – and, apart from those sins, only sexuality in marriage is referred to by the Fathers.
I don’t understand what you mean. Could you please elaborate?
Contraception was banned because the Fathers knew from Sacred Scripture that offspring was the main purpose of sex within marriage. (Post #376). The errors of Stoicism were exposed in post #242, as St Augustine knew.If contraception was banned using stoic logic
Rather the impossible musings of the dissenter, who exhibits the repetitive arrogance of denigrating, Vatican II, Popes Paul VI, Blessed John Paul II, and Pius XI in Casti Connubii who teaches:you surely have a bumpy ride talking about “doctrine without interruption” or when speaking about “universality of time”.
Very important point.And for further clarification on St. Augustine. I have been rereading the quotes again and there is a consistent misinterpretation happening. Some people quoting him have forgotten the context. Some are disregarding his audience.
Some of the groups he is writing about held that marriage was NOT designed for children. Some groups held the idea and forced people to remain celibate, while others allowed people to “marry” but conception was unlawful. (Kind of like China but without even one child allowed.) I emphasize forced in that sentence. Celibacy is to be embraced by those to whom it is given.
One of the quotes floating around in this thread is where he is reiterating that “cohabitation is NOT unlawful since it is the purpose of marriage for the result of creating off-spring.” You have to know the audience. There were societies who thought they were more holy by making marriage only to protect and provide, but not to “cohabit”. They prevented, by law, marital intercourse. It was presumed that if you were “under one roof” you were having sex. This heresy was repeated in early America by some of the people who fled here, “for religious freedom.” In those cultures, being pregnant showed you had sinned, even if you were married.
If you don’t know the audience and the idioms of the time, early writing is very easy to misrepresent. My theologian friend, a student of Dr. Waldstein’s, has what he calls a “dumb example that works to explain it.” He says, “If I walked up to you in modern America and said, ‘knock’ you would not know what I was trying to say. But if I walked up to you and said, ‘Knock knock?’ you would know how to respond. That is an idiom.” Please know your audience and idioms as you seek to understand the Early Church Fathers and Scripture.