NFP and contraception

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Sacredcello, you are citing information on follicular development from the 1950s. The study I cited took place in 2003. A 50 year time lapse in these studies might account for some of the more accurate information provided in the 2003 study.

The study included 63 women and daily, high resolution trans-vaginal ultrasounds on these women. The “waves” you cite are what has been known about since the 1950s, but the ultrasounds showed that 6 of these women actually ovulated twice during the same month. They are continuing studies to discover why some waves lead to actual ovulation and some do not.
Actually, the research for your article was done in 2000 and was published in 2002 (nearly 10 years ago). The article that I cited included both studies from the 1950’s, as well as your article, but there is no information that I have found in any study that indicates that ovulation takes place any more than 12 - 24 hours apart. Don’t you think that if this were the case, (that ovulation occurred twice in a span that was further apart than 12 - 24 hours), that research in the last 11 years would have proven it or at least shown further development of this theory? I am certainly open-minded, but I just don’t see any evidence of it.
 
You completely missing my point. Ovulation can occur, by accident, when one has marital relations during an infertile cycle when practicing NFP. The fertilized egg has a statistically higher chance of not implanting when this occurs. It is similar to what happens when one is on the pill.
Higher chance of not implanting when what occurs? Do you mean in the absence of good quality fertile mucus? It is true that Dr. Hilgers has shown a correlation between limited to dry mucus cycles and repeat miscarriages. But, there are protocols to improve the quality of the woman’s cervical mucus in order to avoid a future miscarriage. However, if a couple is trying to avoid a pregnancy and is limiting their relations to phase-III only, there is only a 99.9% chance of pregnancy. Now, I am not dismissing the tragedy of those small number of conceptions which might end in miscarriage (one never knows for sure what is going to happen), but I’m not sure what you are suggesting that couples should do about it? Or how this affects papal infallibility in your view.
 
This is a disingenuous response that is callous toward those humans who are discarded by the Pill.

From a paper by William F. Colliton, Jr., M.D. The Birth Control Pill: Abortifacient and Contraceptive.

uffl.org/vol10/colliton10.pdf
Here is a the abstract of a study cited in the American Journal of Obstetrics and Gynecology, not just theoretical statistics:

Modern hormonal contraceptives and intrauterine contraceptive devices have multiple biologic effects. Some of them may be the primary mechanism of contraceptive action, whereas others are secondary. For combined oral contraceptives and progestin-only methods, the main mechanisms are ovulation inhibition and changes in the cervical mucus that inhibit sperm penetration. The hormonal methods, particularly the low-dose progestin-only products and emergency contraceptive pills, have effects on the endometrium that, theoretically, could affect implantation. However, no scientific evidence indicates that prevention of implantation actually results from the use of these methods. Once pregnancy begins, none of these methods has an abortifacient action. The precise mechanism of intrauterine contraceptive devices is unclear. Current evidence indicates they exert their primary effect before fertilization, reducing the opportunity of sperm to fertilize an ovum. (Am J Obstet Gynecol 1999;181:1263-9.)

sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0002937899701201

Once again, I don’t know why you are harping on this issue with me. I have already stated that even the risk that the pill could possibly cause a miscarriage or abortion is totally unacceptable for anyone who is pro-life, but I seriously object to being called disingenuous and callous for simply presenting a factual study on the matter.

Just more emotional rhetoric from the pro-NFP crowd I guess.
 
Actually, the research for your article was done in 2000 and was published in 2002 (nearly 10 years ago). The article that I cited included both studies from the 1950’s, as well as your article, but there is no information that I have found in any study that indicates that ovulation takes place any more than 12 - 24 hours apart. Don’t you think that if this were the case, (that ovulation occurred twice in a span that was further apart than 12 - 24 hours), that research in the last 11 years would have proven it or at least shown further development of this theory? I am certainly open-minded, but I just don’t see any evidence of it.
Hard to say. The full study would cost $30 to read and I’m not paying :). I would assume that the ovulations were more than 24 hours or so apart, since that in itself would certainly not be new information, but the abstract doesn’t say and I’m not about to buy the article! I wish I knew though.
 
Now, I am not dismissing the tragedy of those small number of conceptions which might end in miscarriage (one never knows for sure what is going to happen), but I’m not sure what you are suggesting that couples should do about it?
According to a great many on this forum, as demonstrated by discussions related to the pill, any chance is unacceptable. Does the Church take the position on any matter than sinning is okay if it is 0.1% of the time or less? If not, why is it acceptable in this case, when done with the full knowledge that this can happen?
Or how this affects papal infallibility in your view.
It raises the issue, implicitly, that an increase in the number of miscarriages is perfectly acceptable for grave reason. And since this moral issue has already been addressed, it cannot be changed.
 
Once again, I don’t know why you are harping on this issue with me. I have already stated that even the risk that the pill could possibly cause a miscarriage or abortion is totally unacceptable for anyone who is pro-life, but I seriously object to being called disingenuous and callous for simply presenting a factual study on the matter.

Just more emotional rhetoric from the pro-NFP crowd I guess.
You had not previously cited any factual study, but simply stated, “oh, they just include that info on every medication, it doesn’t mean anything…”

I am not “harping on you”, but I include quotes from an academic paper, not just for your benefit, but for those who might be misled by your quick dismissal of abortifacients.
However, earlier in their paper they noted, quite accurately, that the medical literature documents an incidence of 3-5 pregnancies per 100 women per year for Pill users. Dr. Don Gambrell Jr., a renowned gynecological endocrinologist, addressed this issue during the educational segment of this same meeting. He noted a 14% incidence of ovulation in women taking the 50 microgram BCP. This rate varies from pill to pill and from patient to patient. Now, every case of fertilization that does occur in women on the pill, in which the pill has made it difficult or impossible for there to be implantation, contradicts the thesis of those stating that the BCP is not arbortifacient. Simple logic would suggest that many more than the clinically diagnosed pregnancies that occur are aborted because of the acyclic, unfavorable-for-implantation endometrium.
There is nothing emotional about this academic paper. Sorry, but there is no empty rhetoric here, only sound logic.

I am not just a faceless entity in the “NFP crowd”. You speak as if I were not a thinking person who reads and applies both faith and reason to my every day life. If it makes it easier for you to categorize me as such, then so be it. But, this type of casual dismissal of another person would not hold up in any PhD program seminar. Name-calling (emotional rhetoric from the NFP crowd) is not going to get you very far in academia.
 
Hard to say. The full study would cost $30 to read and I’m not paying :). I would assume that the ovulations were more than 24 hours or so apart, since that in itself would certainly not be new information, but the abstract doesn’t say and I’m not about to buy the article! I wish I knew though.
Even if the ovulations were 2 days (48 hrs) apart, the Peak + 3 rule would still put the woman in phase II (fertile) and if she ovulated a 2nd time, then there would still be fertile mucus, so this new information does not change the effectiveness of NFP.
 
According to a great many on this forum, as demonstrated by discussions related to the pill, any chance is unacceptable.
There is a moral difference between a natural miscarriage and a physician-assisted abortion caused by the use of a BCP. The first is unintended the second is intended (even if the couple hoped that the BCP was working to prevent ovulation, the fact is that they took action to create an unwelcome environment for a blastocyst (new human) to implant).
Does the Church take the position on any matter than sinning is okay if it is 0.1% of the time or less? If not, why is it acceptable in this case, when done with the full knowledge that this can happen?
No, the Church does not say it is okay to sin. There is no sin in the case of a couple who are either trying to conceive or trying to avoid, but who, in either case, experience a natural miscarriage. If this were a first time miscarriage, this event could serve to alert the couple that there is an underlying medical problem. There is no sin. If they seek medical treatment as a result of this first time miscarriage, they could go on to achieve a pregnancy. Again, there is no sin. If the couple receives medical treatment, and yet continues to have miscarriages, there is no sin. There was no intention on the part of the couple to harm an innocent human in the case of natural miscarriage.
It raises the issue, implicitly, that an increase in the number of miscarriages is perfectly acceptable for grave reason. And since this moral issue has already been addressed, it cannot be changed.
An increase in miscarriages compared to what? With ABC use? It has already been shown that the method effectiveness of NFP surpasses all forms of ABC. So, how are you saying that an increase in number of miscarriages is acceptable? That doesn’t make any sense.
 
You had not previously cited any factual study, but simply stated, “oh, they just include that info on every medication, it doesn’t mean anything…”

I am not “harping on you”, but I include quotes from an academic paper, not just for your benefit, but for those who might be misled by your quick dismissal of abortifacients.

There is nothing emotional about this academic paper. Sorry, but there is no empty rhetoric here, only sound logic.

I am not just a faceless entity in the “NFP crowd”. You speak as if I were not a thinking person who reads and applies both faith and reason to my every day life. If it makes it easier for you to categorize me as such, then so be it. But, this type of casual dismissal of another person would not hold up in any PhD program seminar. Name-calling (emotional rhetoric from the NFP crowd) is not going to get you very far in academia.
I’ll try to remember that when I’m doing my doctoral thesis on Modern French Poetry. I am well-acquainted with the academic world, and this is not it. The fact is that the article you cited was nothing more than a statistical and hypothetical appeal to emotionalism with no actual data to back it up. Even the title of the article itself is misleading, as it presumes that any amount of actual research can actually prove the abortifacient effects of the contraceptive pill, which it cannot as of yet.
 
There is a moral difference between a natural miscarriage and a physician-assisted abortion caused by the use of a BCP. The first is unintended the second is intended (even if the couple hoped that the BCP was working to prevent ovulation, the fact is that they took action to create an unwelcome environment for a blastocyst (new human) to implant).

No, the Church does not say it is okay to sin. There is no sin in the case of a couple who are either trying to conceive or trying to avoid, but who, in either case, experience a natural miscarriage. If this were a first time miscarriage, this event could serve to alert the couple that there is an underlying medical problem. There is no sin. If they seek medical treatment as a result of this first time miscarriage, they could go on to achieve a pregnancy. Again, there is no sin. If the couple receives medical treatment, and yet continues to have miscarriages, there is no sin. There was no intention on the part of the couple to harm an innocent human in the case of natural miscarriage.
How does the principle of double effect apply here? The possible miscarriage is neither intended by the person taking the pill, nor by the manufacturers of said pill. If it happens at all, it is a completely unintended although foreseeable side-effect.

An increase in miscarriages compared to what? With ABC use? It has already been shown that the method effectiveness of NFP surpasses all forms of ABC. So, how are you saying that an increase in number of miscarriages is acceptable? That doesn’t make any sense.
 
Chrono13, #703
It is difficult to claim contraception ban is part of Universal Magisterium since bishops of the past forbid it on entirely different logic and model of natural law.
Christ’s Church has always required following the natural moral law and even the pagans understood it, which is why She has constantly condemned contraception.

The ancient Egyptians and the pagan Cicero, before Christ, acknowledged the natural moral law: Cicero (died 43 B.C.) wrote in De Republica, 3.22: “True law is right reason in agreement with nature. It is of universal application, unchanging, everlasting. We cannot be freed from it by Senate or people. This law is not one thing at Rome and another at Athens, but is eternal and immutable, valid for all nations and for all times. God is the Author of it, its promulgator, and its enforcing judge. Whoever is disobedient to it is abandoning his true self and denying his own nature.” (Post #516).
Where ignorance is bliss ‘tis folly to be wise. The illogical speculations of some posters continues.

The infallible condemnation in *Casti Connubii *was issued specifically due to the Anglican reversal in 1930, and there is nothing “difficult" in assenting to Christ, the Son of God, in His clear transfer of His authority to His Supreme Vicar in making four promises to Peter alone:
“You are Peter and on this rock I will build My Church.” (Mt 16:18)
“The gates of hell will not prevail against it.”(Mt 16:18)
I will give you the keys of the Kingdom of heaven.” ( Mt 16:19)
“Whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven.” (Mt 16:19)

Since there is only abstinence in NBR there is nothing to contracept, and those who display their prejudices by concocting such a fallacy show their lack of reason and myopia against the obvious.
 
There is a moral difference between a natural miscarriage and a physician-assisted abortion caused by the use of a BCP.
How about using a natural means that effects the same result? Is this acceptable? According to this discussion, it absolutely is.
The first is unintended the second is intended (even if the couple hoped that the BCP was working to prevent ovulation, the fact is that they took action to create an unwelcome environment for a blastocyst (new human) to implant).
Having relations only during the infertile period creates a similar environment. Having relations only during the fertile period avoids it. Which is the correct course of action?
There is no sin in the case of a couple who are either trying to conceive or trying to avoid, but who, in either case, experience a natural miscarriage.
Is is natural, and acceptable, to have relations only at a time that increase that chance of miscarriage?
If this were a first time miscarriage, this event could serve to alert the couple that there is an underlying medical problem.
The miscarriage is a result of the egg not implanting in the first place. Just like in the case of the pill, it is highly unlikely the couple would ever be aware of the “miscarriage.”
There was no intention on the part of the couple to harm an innocent human in the case of natural miscarriage.
But now that we know that this can happen, and the couple do it anyway, it still isn’t sinful?

I’m keeping it simple, BTW. The natural order of things is to have relations during the fertile period, not the infertile period.
 
Read the journal “Fertility and Sterility” volume 80, page 116. A Canadian study has indeed found that a good percentage of women ovulate twice a month, making NFP almost impossible for these women. My grandmother did not have “health issues” that would have been cleared up by NFP as much as proponents like to say it’s a one-size-fits-all method of birth control. My grandmother always felt great and was and is perfectly healthy to this day. She had wonderful pregnancies and loads of energy. No, they were not going to enter into a Josephite marriage for 30 years because of her high fertility, no reason to be sorry about that. They deserved every scrap of pleasure they could glean from the life they were given, which was harder than I can ever imagine.

And as much as you wish it were so, the Catholic Church doesn’t get to decide how words are defined. That is left to linguists and etymologists (of which I am one) and is a much more complex process than simply deciding what one WANTS a word to mean, and anyone who thinks infallibility extends to the definition of words relating to teachings on faith and morals has a serious misunderstanding of infallibility.
I have really been trying to remain charitable. I am a long timer here and have already had “dueling sources” debates over the years. I don’t do them much anymore. You are new and full of fire. And it is a topic that you are in obedience to the Church while in a state of personal disagreement. That is to be commended.

I have seen many of those studies due to seeking help for many infertile women. I know that you really don’t want to believe this, but most of medical field still has the science of fertility and conception wrong. Since I don’t have a way to access it, I am going to presume that in the study you cite they performed ultrasounds daily or at least weekly to determine the actual egg releases. That is the *only *way to know an egg actually did release. Even the LH tests only can confirm the presence of, “an ovulatory event” as my friend the nurse practitioner puts it.

The studies about a second ovulation are faulty when they presume that you must noticeably bleed in order to be in a new cycle. The so-called “second ovulation” is in a different cycle. They are caused by an estrogen dominance, and most importantly, insufficient progesterone. Since you are conversing with someone who *has/had *the problem, namely me, I think I know a fair amount about it. One theory presumed I was ovulating twice because of the double mucous patch. I wasn’t. And since I now have only have *one *ovary, and can still suffer the problem, I am proof that it is not a double ovulation from two ovaries. And yes, I went in for the ultrasounds to check if I was actually releasing eggs. (The ovary was removed for a totally different reason.) It was capable of releasing eggs, but never within the same cycle as the other. It is a biological impossibility. But having a 3 day luteal phase, is possible. I have had them, many times. It is not a double ovulation. It is an severely deficient luteal phase. We are thrilled that I have stretched out to a “super-long” 24 day cycle. WooHoo!! Charting temps has been instrumental in helping me boost my luteal phase. I was not as blessed as your grandmother. I have only two children, and many miscarriages, most before a test would even detect, so I only know of 3.

I am glad that your grandmother was healthy. Please note that I said that her pregnancies and the high presence of progesterone likely *contributed *to her being healthy. You had addressed her “few hours of sleep,” so I apologize for taking that to mean she was fatigued all the time. I do not know any mothers who get a lot of sleep. Most are sleep deprived, so when you commented on how many hours she slept and how many hours she worked, I had to guess at your point. I was guessing you meant she was tired all the time. I am sorry for my misunderstanding of your point.

The Catholic Church does get to decide the definitions of words when She defines them for Her own use. The fact that secular society changes it over the years is not the fault of the Church. I was filling out a survey before I logged in here tonight, in which I had to check the box that said, “married/ common law/ civil union/ live with partner,” since the boxes for “single, widowed, or divorced” didn’t qualify at all. Secular society changes words all the time. That doesn’t make how we use them here to be incorrect. I hope that you do recognize the Church views those terms to be very different from each other. So even though secular society thought it prudent to lump them into one checkbox, the Church disagrees on that definition.

As I said, I was very impressed to find that you are in union with Church teachings even though you disagree. That knowledge has softened my treatment of your opinions. To stay faithful to the Church at such a time, is commendable. Prayers for you that you can stay in union with the Church as you sort it out.
 
I can almost agree with a few of your points, but they are best addressed in a thread of their own.
The natural order of things is to have relations during the fertile period, not the infertile period.
But this assertion is applicable here and completely inaccurate.

The so-called “natural order” is to have relations whenever. The mutually fertile phase is when we are at our highest desire, but this, in no way, means that relations during the infertile phase are not according to the natural design.

What many of you do not seem to be aware is that you are debating a point in a thread where more than one of us have suffered or are still suffering infertility. I made that point upthread, but my wordiness probably buried it. The arguments many of you are using are shot down because* they don’t apply to the infertile*. The rules don’t change due to “barrenness,” though many of the arguments people are making here want to make an exception for the “intent of the barren.” Intent *is *important. It is actually very important. But it is not what is being discussed here. *Method *is the point of this discussion. There are ways to have sex while not conceiving. Some are acceptable, some are not.

The question we ask the Church is, “Is it licit to have relations that are exclusively infertile?” The Church answers, “Yes, but for serious reasons only. Children are a blessing that is not to be taken lightly.”
 
I’ll try to remember that when I’m doing my doctoral thesis on Modern French Poetry. I am well-acquainted with the academic world, and this is not it. The fact is that the article you cited was nothing more than a statistical and hypothetical appeal to emotionalism with no actual data to back it up. Even the title of the article itself is misleading, as it presumes that any amount of actual research can actually prove the abortifacient effects of the contraceptive pill, which it cannot as of yet.
You are quite right that CAF is not academia. In academia, papers written by medical doctors with factual information which is heavily referenced by medical journals, are not written off as emotionalism.

Good luck with your dissertation. 👍
 
Having relations only during the infertile period creates a similar environment. Having relations only during the fertile period avoids it. Which is the correct course of action?
I am an NFP instructor and I have no idea what you are talking about. Could you please explain exactly how having relations during phase III (infertile) which might result in a pregnancy (ovulation happened later than the couple thought) would create an environment that would lead to the embryo not implanting? I’ve been through months of training, and I’ve never heard of such a thing. It sounds like misinformation. Can you cite anything?

On the other hand, I have read in Dr. Hilgers new book, The NaProTechnology Revolution: Unleashing the Power in a Woman’s Cycle that repeat miscarriages are associated with dry to limited mucus cycles. If this is the case, that there is limited mucus, then there are ways to treat it.
Is is natural, and acceptable, to have relations only at a time that increase that chance of miscarriage?
Citation, please. I have never heard of this.
The miscarriage is a result of the egg not implanting in the first place. Just like in the case of the pill, it is highly unlikely the couple would ever be aware of the “miscarriage.”
This is not true at all. Often, these early miscarriages result because the implantation was not at a good place (tubal) or the endometrium was not healthy enough to nourish the embryo, so the new life dies before implantation is completed. Because I am charting, I became aware that I most likely conceived this month. I had strong implantation cramps on 5 DPO (5 days past ovulation) followed by multiple pregnancy symptoms. Then, suddenly the symptoms went away and I never got a positive pregnancy test. I will most likely miscarry in the next day or two. I am sorry about it, but I had no way of knowing beforehand that this conception would end in miscarriage or if the baby would be carried to full term. It is an indicator that my husband and I are fertile, but that my NaPro treatments, perhaps need to be stepped up (laparoscopy for endometriosis), so that the next time new life will be able to survive.

Are you suggesting that my husband and I should never have sex because there is a chance that we might miscarry the next time? That seems to be the line of reasoning that you are taking. In that case, no one should be having sex, because there is always a chance of miscarriage. 1 in 6 pregnancies end in miscarriage. But, what about a possible new life that might be created by God in the future and carried to term? Are you saying that we should avoid the possibility of new life?
But now that we know that this can happen, and the couple do it anyway, it still isn’t sinful?
How do we know that miscarriage is any more likely in phase III? You have not shown that.
I’m keeping it simple, BTW. The natural order of things is to have relations during the fertile period, not the infertile period.
God created our bodies to have both fertile and infertile days. Are you saying that He made a mistake? I do not accept this premise that miscarriage is more likely if conception takes place during phase III. Please show me some medical journal that points to this.
 
I have really been trying to remain charitable. I am a long timer here and have already had “dueling sources” debates over the years. I don’t do them much anymore.
Dear LittleDeb,

I appreciate your wisdom and hope to follow your lead and to avoid these types of debates in the future. It seems to be an exercise in futility, as one can cite sources until one is blue in the face, but if the heart is not inclined toward the beauty and truth found in our Catholic faith, well then…

In any case, I am sorry to hear about your losses. I didn’t know that you could have a luteal phase that is only 3 days. That would be a sign of very low progesterone, indeed. It’s good to be alive in a time when there are a few good doctors who are able to investigate and treat our female medical issues. Anyway, I hope to be as blessed as you with 2 children some day. :o

God bless you.
 
And finally, someone asked one of us to admit that St. Augustine would not have condoned NFP. I will go out on the limb and say yes and no. He would have, and likely did, embrace charting fertility in order to have only fertile relations. He believed a couple was *likely *sinning to have relations that didn’t result in conception. (Namely after menopause, and during barrenness and pregnancy.)

His writings do call married couples to celibacy in between conceptions to make sure they weren’t sinning. Due to his playboy past, he could not fathom sex that was not a cure for concupiscence. (In all fairness, the newer translations note that the ECFs and Scripture used the actual term, “lust” far less frequently than was originally thought.) They used the term “cure for sin” more often. Sometimes the sin of lust was implied. Other times it is likely he was addressing a “sinful distraction.” But either way he found that sex that wasn’t begetting was sinful in some way. How many of us here have had relations that were *not *sinful but couldn’t result in a conception due to breastfeeding infertility or something like it? 👋 ME, for one!

Either way, he honestly believed that a couple likely was sinning nearly every time they had relations. Because begetting was necessary, he felt that at that time only, they were not sinning. But he never really addresses how a couple was able to know, though. He did say that because they were married, the sin was not a mortal sin. Many people, in trying to live up to his writings will have baby, after baby, after baby. Even when it is not advisable.

Yes, St Augustine would have called me personally, to total celibacy. Since pregnancy is difficult and I have to have few due to my major health problems, he would have said that any sex was likely sinful. He would have also said I was not even called to marriage. But St Augustine, though doctor of the Church, was not my personal spiritual adviser. I was able to conceive twice and carry to term. With help from family, I can manage my two little ones, even though I am bed-bound often. The door remains open, even now, that God might still see fit to lift my health troubles that make pregnancy dangerous, and having more children to care for, unwise. We will not embrace total celibacy unless and until God calls us there.

God can lift that burden at any time. He *could *call us tomorrow to fertile relations. I am still fertile. I am so thankful for that. I have still been able to chart. We have had so many times of prayerful periodic continence because my *health, *not conception, made relations impossible. Without periodic continence, my children would not be here. If I had followed St. Augustine to the literalistic intent, I would have been called to the single life. Blessed John Paul’s writings said I could be called to marriage. I don’t believe that is a change in teaching, just a better understanding.

As it has been said here before by those wiser than I. “NFP is not an alternative to contraception. It is an alternative to total abstinence.” To those who hold that NFP is immoral, please reply: Based on my circumstances, whom should I follow; an ECF whom we don’t totally understand, or a long list of infallible Popes who declared the practice licit? Thank you for any prayers you can offer that we continue to discern the will of God under this painful burden.
 
This is a disingenuous response that is callous toward those humans who are discarded by the Pill.

From a paper by William F. Colliton, Jr., M.D. The Birth Control Pill: Abortifacient and Contraceptive.

uffl.org/vol10/colliton10.pdf
My understanding of the pill’s method of action was primarily contraceptive (preventing ovulation and inhibiting sperm movement) and secondarily contragestive - not abortive. However, I usually look to secular sources for medical information. For a change, I looked to a religious one: The American Association of Pro-life Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
They address the controversy of if the pill is abortifacient. They offer two papers to read: one is this paper you cite. The other is “Hormone Contraceptives Controversies and Clarifications.”

I hope you will read it, although it is on the long side. I will copy and paste a few tidbits though in case you don’t.
Most hormone contraceptives are noted to work by 3 methods of action:

1)Primarily, they inhibit ovulation by suppression of the pituitary/ovarian axis, mediated through suppression of gonadotrophin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus.

2)Secondarily, they inhibit transport of sperm through the cervix by thickening the cervical mucous.

3)They cause changes in the uterine lining (endometrium) which have historically been assumed to decrease the possibility of implantation, should fertilization occur.

A thorough review of the medical literature uncovers ample data to support the first two methods of action, which are contraceptive actions. However, there is** no direct evidence in the literature to support the third proposed method of action**
An extensive review of pertinent scientific writings indicates that there is** no credible evidence to validate a mechanism of pre-implantation abortion** as a part of the action of hormone contraceptives.
In order to classify COCs as an abortifacient, several things must exist:
  1. Conceptions must occur.
  2. The abortive effect must be present with proper use as prescribed.
  3. Loss of these conceptions must exceed the base-line loss for populations not using this substance, or be shown to occur due solely to the medication itself, and not other known factors.
  4. The abortive effect should be consistent and reproducible by multiple independent observers.
There are no studies that we are aware of regarding combined oral contraceptives or Depoprovera that demonstrate numbers 2,3, or 4
There has been no demonstrated effect of COC use on spontaneous clinical abortion rates.
[T]here is no evidence that shows that the endometrial changes produced by COCs contribute to failure of implantation of conceptions
This paper also does some calculations, similar to the one you have provided. Their conclusion:
Considering the above information on ovulatory related hormone influences on the endometrium, “on pill” ovulation rates and pregnancy rates, the cervical mucus factor, and known data on human fecundity, fertility, and spontaneous loss rates, it can be appreciated that there is no need to postulate a pill-induced preimplantation abortion phenomenon to explain why 15.5 eggs produce one ongoing pregnancy. Known and natural causes can account for the numbers.
(See the paper itself for the calculations, it’s too long to post here. It’s about halfway down the page)

I could quote secular sources all day long saying this kind of thing, but some people might disregard it if it contradicts their current view. So I am glad I found a religious (Christian) source who thoroughly studied the available evidence and came to the same conclusion that the secular sources do. (Albeit, the Association did not come to a consensus on it, so the controversy remains.) As long as people are well informed on the subject, it’s all good. It’s important that people not just hear “the pill is abortifacient” and be like “oh ok well the NFP teacher said the pill is abortifacient so it must be!” when really, there is more to it than that. I encourage anyone who thinks it is to read that article.
 
And finally, someone asked one of us to admit that St. Augustine would not have condoned NFP. I will go out on the limb and say yes and no. He would have, and likely did, embrace charting fertility in order to have only fertile relations. He believed a couple was *likely *sinning to have relations that didn’t result in conception. (Namely after menopause, and during barrenness and pregnancy.)

His writings do call married couples to celibacy in between conceptions to make sure they weren’t sinning. Due to his playboy past, he could not fathom sex that was not a cure for concupiscence. (In all fairness, the newer translations note that the ECFs and Scripture used the actual term, “lust” far less frequently than was originally thought.) They used the term “cure for sin” more often. Sometimes the sin of lust was implied. Other times it is likely he was addressing a “sinful distraction.” But either way he found that sex that wasn’t begetting was sinful in some way. How many of us here have had relations that were *not *sinful but couldn’t result in a conception due to breastfeeding infertility or something like it? 👋 ME, for one!

Either way, he honestly believed that a couple likely was sinning nearly every time they had relations. Because begetting was necessary, he felt that at that time only, they were not sinning. But he never really addresses how a couple was able to know, though. He did say that because they were married, the sin was not a mortal sin. Many people, in trying to live up to his writings will have baby, after baby, after baby. Even when it is not advisable.

Yes, St Augustine would have called me personally, to total celibacy. Since pregnancy is difficult and I have to have few due to my major health problems, he would have said that any sex was likely sinful. He would have also said I was not even called to marriage. But St Augustine, though doctor of the Church, was not my personal spiritual adviser. I was able to conceive twice and carry to term. With help from family, I can manage my two little ones, even though I am bed-bound often. The door remains open, even now, that God might still see fit to lift my health troubles that make pregnancy dangerous, and having more children to care for, unwise. We will not embrace total celibacy unless and until God calls us there.

God can lift that burden at any time. He *could *call us tomorrow to fertile relations. I am still fertile. I am so thankful for that. I have still been able to chart. We have had so many times of prayerful periodic continence because my *health, *not conception, made relations impossible. Without periodic continence, my children would not be here. If I had followed St. Augustine to the literalistic intent, I would have been called to the single life. Blessed John Paul’s writings said I could be called to marriage. I don’t believe that is a change in teaching, just a better understanding.

As it has been said here before by those wiser than I. “NFP is not an alternative to contraception. It is an alternative to total abstinence.” To those who hold that NFP is immoral, please reply: Based on my circumstances, whom should I follow; an ECF whom we don’t totally understand, or a long list of infallible Popes who declared the practice licit? Thank you for any prayers you can offer that we continue to discern the will of God under this painful burden.
Good post 👍
 
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