NFP rules help

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1inICXC

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This was probably explained in the NFP class we took 10 yrs ago but I have no recollection:
If the egg can only be fertilized 12-24hrs after ovulation and the temperature goes up a bit AFTER ovulation has occured, why does the sympto-thermal method require abstinence for THREE full days after ovulation? There is no way the egg can be fertilized after 50, 60 or 70 hrs, no?
 
I can’t say for certain but it may be a buffer to ensure that the temp shift is sustained and not due to other circumstances.
 
I believe it’s because temp could rise a bit when you move , are in medication or drank alcohol or some other reason. So it at least requires three high temps to say for certain ( or to confirm) that you really ovulated three days ago. There are apps that work like that. The morning of first rise in temp after ovulation, the app won’t confirm you have ovulated until it sees three high temperatures after ovulation.
 
The other posters are correct. There can be occasional temperature fluctuations due to mild fever, alcohol consumption or a myriad of other reasons. The three days allow you to be certain that it is a genuine temperature shift and not a random fluctuation.
 
Also, if you are going to ovulate twice that month, it will be within 24 hours (I could be wrong on that time frame, but its something like that) of the first ovulation, thus pushing your “ovulation window” a little longer
 
Also, if you are going to ovulate twice that month, it will be within 24 hours (I could be wrong on that time frame, but its something like that) of the first ovulation, thus pushing your “ovulation window” a little longer
Ah yes. I forgot about that little issue. Which is really ironic since it happened to me. 😃
 
STM identifies ovulation as the day before a sustained temperature rise of 3 days or more.

One day of temperature rise may not indicate ovulation. But three sustained days confirm ovulation.
 
oh, I see, thank you. So you cannot actually get pregnant on Day 2 and 3 of high temp if ovulation indeed ocurred before day 1, it;s simply a way of confirming that ovulation did in fact occur.

I guess when you have regular cycles, chancing it the night 0f day 2 or the morning of day 3 is not much of a risk then .
 
oh, I see, thank you. So you cannot actually get pregnant on Day 2 and 3 of high temp if ovulation indeed ocurred before day 1, it;s simply a way of confirming that ovulation did in fact occur.

I guess when you have regular cycles, chancing it the night 0f day 2 or the morning of day 3 is not much of a risk then .
I wouldn’t count on it if you really think you need to avoid. Lots of us have fraternal twins. Women have been known to ovulate more than once in a month.
 
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