Someone please explain tom me how NFP used as a contraceptive is not a sin? I have not found any church father that says sex without the sole purpose to have children is not a sin. How can the church say it is consistant with her teachings?
(Please do not use personal testimonies I can get the same testimonies from someone using ABC.)
Polaris,
Morality is determined by the act, the intent, and the circumstances.
The act is what we ‘do’.
The intent is what we are hoping to accomplish with the act.
The circumstances are the who, what, when around the act.
Some acts are inherently immoral. (Murder, lying, artificial contraception)
Some acts are amoral (neither moral or immoral), but the intent behind the act will determine morality. It is not inherently immoral to tell the truth, but if we tell the truth to someone with the intent to unneccesarily hurt them (“I won the prize for best looking and you did not”), then we are being immoral.
Some acts and intents are moral, but the circumstances in which they are performed are not. It is OK for a husband and wife to have sexual relations, but not on corner of First and Main at 8:00 am Wednesday morning.
NFP CAN be moral (not that it always is). How do we know if it is moral?
What is the act of NFP? There are two acts, actually. Learning, and ‘abstaining’. The act of learning is not inherently immoral. Abstaining is actually not an act, but a failure to act. It is also not inherently immoral. Couples abstain for a multitude of reasons (feeding the baby, to sleep, to eat, to go to work, etc.) So, the ‘act’ of NFP is not inherently immoral.
What about intent? The Church states that NFP can be used to space children, for the benefit of children already born. Other intents (e.g. to use NFP in an attempt to never have children) is not allowed, and turns NFP into something immoral. Marriage was ordained by God for procreation, to intend our whole marriage to deny God’s purpose is wrong.
What about circumstances? Well, since the acts of NFP are learning and abstaining, there are few, if any circumstances that would turn these acts into immoral ones.
Another way to come about this. God requires that each specific act of marital relations be full, (nothing is done to that specific relation that will attempt to render it sterile) NFP allows us to obey God in this regard. God also requires that we accept children as a purpose of marriage. As long as we do not use NFP to deny God’s imperitive for marriage, we can use NFP licitly. There are a few other intents that could make NFP immoral, for example one spouse using it as a reason to withhold themselves from the other. In marriage, we give ourselves fully. Withholding ourselves is attempting to break the covenant we made, and is immoral.
Hope this helps.
Dan