G
Gmsod
Guest
Hello everyone. I read something that said that the early church did not believe the bishop of Rome to have had the kind of primacy he has today and he cited canon IV of Nicea.
CANON IV. IT is by all means proper that a bishop should be appointed by all the bishops in the province; but should this be difficult, either on account of urgent necessity or because of distance, three at least should meet together, and the suffrages of the absent bishops also being given and communicated in writing, then the ordination should take place. But in every province the ratification of what is done should be left to the Metropolitan.
Is it true that all bishops must be chosen by the Pope, or something like that? For these contradict or does it just appear so.
CANON IV. IT is by all means proper that a bishop should be appointed by all the bishops in the province; but should this be difficult, either on account of urgent necessity or because of distance, three at least should meet together, and the suffrages of the absent bishops also being given and communicated in writing, then the ordination should take place. But in every province the ratification of what is done should be left to the Metropolitan.
Is it true that all bishops must be chosen by the Pope, or something like that? For these contradict or does it just appear so.