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Peter Kreeft has a good article here:
catholiceducation.org/articles/apologetics/ap0209.htm
However, I don’t exactly understand what he means when he says the following (emphasis added):
“If life after death cannot be proved scientifically, is it then intellectually irresponsible to accept it? Only if you assume that it is intellectually irresponsible to accept anything that cannot be proved scientifically. But that premise is self-contradictory (and therefore intellectually irresponsible)! You cannot scientifically prove that the only acceptable proofs are scientific proofs. You cannot prove logically or empirically that only logical or empirical proofs are acceptable as proofs. You cannot prove it logically because its contradiction does not entail a contradiction…”
What does that mean? On the surface, it seems like he’s saying that if something is unproven, its contradiction does not entail a logical contradiction. That makes sense. If I prove A, then ~A gets me *A * ~A, *which is a logical contradiction. But what’s the point of saying that? I would have to prove A first, and then its contradiction will yield a contradiction. So, changing variables for clarity, it seems like what Kreeft is actually saying is that you cannot prove B because ~B is not a contradiction. But that is not self-evident at all; it doesn’t even seem true to me. If all I have is ~B as a premise, it in no way means that I can’t prove B. I’d just wind up with a contradiction and have to get rid of ~B.
I hope that’s not too confusing. What am I missing here?
catholiceducation.org/articles/apologetics/ap0209.htm
However, I don’t exactly understand what he means when he says the following (emphasis added):
“If life after death cannot be proved scientifically, is it then intellectually irresponsible to accept it? Only if you assume that it is intellectually irresponsible to accept anything that cannot be proved scientifically. But that premise is self-contradictory (and therefore intellectually irresponsible)! You cannot scientifically prove that the only acceptable proofs are scientific proofs. You cannot prove logically or empirically that only logical or empirical proofs are acceptable as proofs. You cannot prove it logically because its contradiction does not entail a contradiction…”
What does that mean? On the surface, it seems like he’s saying that if something is unproven, its contradiction does not entail a logical contradiction. That makes sense. If I prove A, then ~A gets me *A * ~A, *which is a logical contradiction. But what’s the point of saying that? I would have to prove A first, and then its contradiction will yield a contradiction. So, changing variables for clarity, it seems like what Kreeft is actually saying is that you cannot prove B because ~B is not a contradiction. But that is not self-evident at all; it doesn’t even seem true to me. If all I have is ~B as a premise, it in no way means that I can’t prove B. I’d just wind up with a contradiction and have to get rid of ~B.
I hope that’s not too confusing. What am I missing here?