No Word for "cousin" in Hebrew and Aramaic?

[Daniel_Marsh]

Hi TJ, what brings on the negative attude about fitzmyer?

 

[Latin_Catholic_1]

Daniel Marsh:

very interresting the olde another mary did it ploy, ( just between us I have no idea what I am talking about I just want to see how this plays out. )

So DA says,

raptureready.com/rr-catholic.html

Your more complete response, please Latin Catholic? thanks.

Fact: there are three different individuals near the Cross with the same name (Mary): Jn. 19,25

Fact: Jesus says to Mary His Mother that John will be Her “son” now: Jn. 19,26 (so it’ll be his duty to take good care of Her from now on)

Bottomline: if Mary the Mother of Jesus is “the same” Mary mother of James & Joses, how is that Jesus indicates to Mary -His Mother- “her son” is gonna be John now?.

Were James & Joses not capable enough to take care of Mary “their own mother” by their own???

Fact: It’s nonsense to say the Mother of Jesus is the mother of the other men; they’re clearly two different individuals.

One is Mary, Mother of Jesus & Joseph’s wife. The other is Mary wife of Clopas & not-mother-of-Jesus but mother of other individuals.

P.S. all the Fathers of the Church agree Mary had no other son besides Jesus… does that count for something? ( hope it does ! )

 

[deb1]

In the King James version of the bible, Lot is referred to as Abraham’s brother after Lot is taken prisoner by an invading army. I do not have my bible sitting beside the computer like I usually do but it is an easy verse to find.

 

[deb1]

mtanuan:

While talking to Protestants, I’ve used the argument that there is no word for “cousin” in Hebrew and Aramaic that is why “brother” is used to describe some of Jesus’ cousins. But if this is so, how is it that the word “cousin” was used to describe Elizabeth’s relationship with our Lady? How can I as a Catholic answer this?

.

If a person translates say Latin into English exactly as it is spoken then the translation would end up sounding a bit like Yoda. This wouldn’t make sense to modern English speakers.

I don’t understand all the sematics of Aramic but I would guess that the translater doesn’t copy it exactly as it was written but translates it in a way that would be more natural to the modern English language. Therefore, he/she puts in the word ‘cousin’ instead of the child of my uncle or kinswoman. That doesn’t mean that the original copy said cousin.

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

Latin_Catholic:

Fact: there are three different individuals near the Cross with the same name (Mary): Jn. 19,25

Fact: Jesus says to Mary His Mother that John will be Her “son” now: Jn. 19,26 (so it’ll be his duty to take good care of Her from now on)

Bottomline: if Mary the Mother of Jesus is “the same” Mary mother of James & Joses, how is that Jesus indicates to Mary -His Mother- “her son” is gonna be John now?.

Were James & Joses not capable enough to take care of Mary “their own mother” by their own???

Fact: It’s nonsense to say the Mother of Jesus is the mother of the other men; they’re clearly two different individuals.

One is Mary, Mother of Jesus & Joseph’s wife. The other is Mary wife of Clopas & not-mother-of-Jesus but mother of other individuals.

P.S. all the Fathers of the Church agree Mary had no other son besides Jesus… does that count for something? ( hope it does ! )

Thanks, good answer my brother.