A
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Guest
Non-Catholics often point to 2Tim 3:16-17 as evidence for “sola Scriptura” (often times referred to as “SS” for short). And recently a new friend of mine brought it up as exactly such evidence for SS , stating that since Scripture says that Scripture makes us complete, that therefore “Scripture is fully sufficient and contains everything necessary that God wants us to know in terms of doctrine and theology…if something makes us complete, then we don’t need anything else”. He said that if we just look at the “plain language of the text”, we can see what Scripture is plainly telling us.
So, I looked at 2Tim 3:16-17 to make sure what he said is the same thing that Scripture says. 2Tim3:16-17 says, “All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.”
“Where are you seeing Scripture ALONE?” I asked. “It looks to me that Scripture is “profitable”…“that a man…may be complete”. I do not see where it says that Scripture ALONE makes man complete all by itself. Where are you seeing that? “
I wanted to point out that nowhere does that verse (or ANY verse in Scripture) indicate that Scripture is the ONLY ingredient, so to speak, in what makes man complete…but that Scripture is profitable…that a man may be complete. And AMEN, by the way, Catholics believe that 100%! In the same line of thought, exactly as Paul is explaining it to Timothy, I can apply this to my physical person. Having an arm also makes me complete (physically), but does that mean that my arm, ALONE, makes me complete physically? No, it doesn’t. To be complete physically, I also need a head, a body, legs, the other arm… My arm is profitable…that I may be complete…but my arm is not the ONLY thing that makes me complete.
I also pointed out another critical point. If the language in 2Tim is evidence for “sola Scriptura”, then why isn’t James 1:4 evidence for “sola perseverance” (or endurance, or steadfastness…depending on the translation)? Let’s look at the passage in James and see what it says: “[2] My brothers and sisters, whenever you face trials of any kind, consider it nothing but joy, [3] because you know that the testing of your faith produces endurance; [4] and let endurance have its full effect, so that you may be mature and complete, lacking in nothing.” Verse 4 tells us, in an even more explicit language than found in 2Tim, that endurance (perseverance, steadfastness) makes us “complete, lacking in nothing”.
Now, no one believes that James teaches “sola perseverance”, (at least no one that I know of) but that’s the logical conclusion we have to come to if we say 2Tim teaches “sola Scriptura” based on the language used.
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So, I looked at 2Tim 3:16-17 to make sure what he said is the same thing that Scripture says. 2Tim3:16-17 says, “All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.”
“Where are you seeing Scripture ALONE?” I asked. “It looks to me that Scripture is “profitable”…“that a man…may be complete”. I do not see where it says that Scripture ALONE makes man complete all by itself. Where are you seeing that? “
I wanted to point out that nowhere does that verse (or ANY verse in Scripture) indicate that Scripture is the ONLY ingredient, so to speak, in what makes man complete…but that Scripture is profitable…that a man may be complete. And AMEN, by the way, Catholics believe that 100%! In the same line of thought, exactly as Paul is explaining it to Timothy, I can apply this to my physical person. Having an arm also makes me complete (physically), but does that mean that my arm, ALONE, makes me complete physically? No, it doesn’t. To be complete physically, I also need a head, a body, legs, the other arm… My arm is profitable…that I may be complete…but my arm is not the ONLY thing that makes me complete.
I also pointed out another critical point. If the language in 2Tim is evidence for “sola Scriptura”, then why isn’t James 1:4 evidence for “sola perseverance” (or endurance, or steadfastness…depending on the translation)? Let’s look at the passage in James and see what it says: “[2] My brothers and sisters, whenever you face trials of any kind, consider it nothing but joy, [3] because you know that the testing of your faith produces endurance; [4] and let endurance have its full effect, so that you may be mature and complete, lacking in nothing.” Verse 4 tells us, in an even more explicit language than found in 2Tim, that endurance (perseverance, steadfastness) makes us “complete, lacking in nothing”.
Now, no one believes that James teaches “sola perseverance”, (at least no one that I know of) but that’s the logical conclusion we have to come to if we say 2Tim teaches “sola Scriptura” based on the language used.
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