Non-Catholics and James 2:18-26

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How do those who subscribe to sola fide interpret James 2:18-26?

(KJV)

2:18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

2:19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.

2:20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?

2:21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?

2:22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?

2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.

2:24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

2:25 Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent [them] out another way?

2:26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.
 
Hi Jabronie, protestants see good works as part of santification, thus that text is not a problem for us because we understand good works is a sign of true faith. Read Eph 2:10.
 
I posted this on another thread, but as worded, it should suffice here as well.

Blessings,

What does James mean by his statement: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (2:24)? It has always been urged by Roman Catholic apologists (see Council of Trent, Sixth Session, Chapters VII, X) that James 2:14-26 is a corrective to the Protestant (not the Pauline) “heresy” that justification is through faith alone completely apart from works, for James expressly declares: “You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone [ex ergon dikaioutai anthropos kai ouk ek pisteos monon]” (2:24). But an exegetical analysis of James’ teaching will disclose that in James’ teaching the accent falls upon the probative character of good works, whereas in the Pauline polemic the accent falls without question upon the judicially constitutive and declarative character of justification. Paul and James clearly mean something different by their use of the words “justified,” ‘faith,” and “works,” and they turn to different places in Genesis and thus to different events in Abraham’s life to support their respective applications of Gen 15:6. This much should be denied by no one.

Whereas Paul intends by “justified” the actual act on God’s part whereby He pardons and imputes righteousness to the ungodly, James intends by “justified” the verdict which God declares when the actually (previously) justified man has demonstrated his actual righteous state by obedience and good works.

Whereas Paul intends by “faith” trustful repose in the merits of Christ alone for pardon and righteousness, James is addressing those whose “faith” was tending toward, if it had not already become, a cold, orthodox intellectualism in which bare assent is given to such propositions as “God is one”—which even the demons confess with seemingly greater appreciation, for they tremble—but which is devoid of any exhibition of love for the brethren.

Whereas Paul, when he repudiates “works,” intends by “works” “the works of the law,” that is, any and every work of whatever kind done for the sake of acquiring merit, James intends by “works” acts of kindness toward those in need performed as the fruit and evidence of a true and vital faith and the actual justified state. (2:14-17).

Whereas Paul is concerned with the question, how may a man achieve right standing before God, and turns to Gen 15:6 to find his answer, James is concerned with the question, how is a man to demonstrate that he has true faith and is therefore actually justified before God turns to Gen 22:9-10, as the probative “fulfillment” of Gen 15:6 (see Gen 22:12), to find his answer (2:21). Note his deixon, “show me”, and deixo, “I will show you" in 2:18; his blepeis, “you see” in 2:22 and his horate, “you see” at the beginning of 2:24—the very verse under discussion: “You see that a man is justified by [his] works, and not by [his said] faith (cf v14) alone.”

And that faith is not alone, it will be “proved” by works, but those works cannot save.

James deals with works in a purely probative manner with respect to faith.

If you deny that, then you must insist that scripture, in the writings of Paul and James, contradicts itself with respect to justification.
 
Robertson’s Word Pictures of the New Testament

Ye see (orate). Present indicative active of oraw. Now he uses the plural again as in 2 Chronicles 2:14. Is justified (dikaioutai). Present passive indicative of dikaiow, here not “is made righteous,” but “is shown to be righteous.” James is discussing the proof of faith, not the initial act of being set right with God (Paul’s idea in Romans 4:1-10). And not only by faith (kai ouk ek pistewß monon). This phrase clears up the meaning of James. Faith (live faith) is what we must all have (Romans 2:18), only it must shew itself also in deeds as Abraham’s did

Also, read Hebrews 11

True faith leads to action. Dead Faith does nothing.
 
When I was in protestant churches (and at a presbyterian college) the most common view was that the “faith” James refers to is basically an academic acceptance of something as true whereas the “faith” Paul speaks of is a living faith. Therefore James’ faith won’t save, but Paul’s will.

That’s an oversimplification maybe, but covers the gist of the most common view I heard.
 
May I speak from the typical Southern Baptist perspective?
Thank you.

This type of subject is completely glossed over, and the ministers from the pulpit would say “they are a cult, those Catholics (and Mormons, and Jehovah’s Witnesses) they are just taking one or two subjects out of context.”

I have studied more Bible in 6 months of my RCIA than in 5 years as being a Sunday School Teacher and 5 years as just a casual participant (I really did participate, I studied lessons, asked questions, questioned answers).

I have ALWAYS thought that the Southern Baptist mantra “Once saved, always saved” was incorrect. Deep in my soul, I wanted to believe that God wanted us to have a more active participation in the salvation process, (of course, we choose to sin, so we should choose to repent/do penance/get forgiveness).

I can go on, but you have my drift.

What can we do about it? The same thing that got my attention: The love end of it. A tender loving Fr Groschel talking about having a mass for a finger after 911. A Mothr Angelica who cares for us in a humorous way. A Journey Home guest talks about his conversion…Ok and a positive influence from Catholic friends, not a debate on whats in the Bible. It’s not going to make much of a difference, you need to get them interested first, and that through the love of Christ.

PS: Thanks so the theological discussion on the scriptures. I love it and would like to hear more. And a lot more on Sacred Tradition.
 
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asteroid:
When I was in protestant churches (and at a presbyterian college) the most common view was that the “faith” James refers to is basically an academic acceptance of something as true whereas the “faith” Paul speaks of is a living faith. Therefore James’ faith won’t save, but Paul’s will.

That’s an oversimplification maybe, but covers the gist of the most common view I heard.
:confused: Really? That doesn’t make sense to me, because if anything, James is saying that you CAN’T just accept Christ academically, you have to live out your faith.:confused:
 
MariaG said:
:confused: Really? That doesn’t make sense to me, because if anything, James is saying that you CAN’T just accept Christ academically, you have to live out your faith.:confused:

Maria,

I think that’s exactly what asteroid is saying Protestants believe. James is rejecting a purely “head” faith that doesn’t involve works. Paul’s faith is the kind of faith that necessarily expresses itself in works. That is the general teaching of most Protestant traditions, though of course the details differ. (I come from a Protestant tradition–the “holiness movement”–that particularly stresses good works. I spent much of my childhood arguing with Baptists, since I lived in East Tennessee–that’s one of the reasons I’m so argumentative, perhaps!)

Edwin
 
Whoa, Whoa, Whoa,
Those of you who claim to be so knowledgable in scripture, really really need to read all of what Paul is dealing with in his letters. Paul is mainly dealing with Jewish converts who are holding to “works of the law” idea. He is not, by protestant renditions, refuting Jesus. Because Jesus says a lot about the works which we must do. “Pick up your cross” “Sell everything” “Why have you come without a wedding garment” (BTW the wedding garment is the work, the man showing up was the faith.) I could go on and on and on. But suffice it to say that if you read the letters of scripture, you must read them with the understanding of who the audience was and what that person was dealing with as far as what he was trying to correct or support. James was writting to a gentile audience who thought faith alone was sufficient, Paul to an audience corrupted into thinking that without the works of the law no salvation was possible.
 
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Contarini:
Maria,

I think that’s exactly what asteroid is saying Protestants believe. James is rejecting a purely “head” faith that doesn’t involve works. Paul’s faith is the kind of faith that necessarily expresses itself in works. That is the general teaching of most Protestant traditions, though of course the details differ. (I come from a Protestant tradition–the “holiness movement”–that particularly stresses good works. I spent much of my childhood arguing with Baptists, since I lived in East Tennessee–that’s one of the reasons I’m so argumentative, perhaps!)

Edwin
👍 Gotcha.

And you argumentative, never!😛

God Bless,
Maria
 
Your interpretation seems to be popular these days (the “New Perspective on Paul”), but I’m not convinced by it. I think it limits Scripture too much and it promotes smugness–maybe even anti-semitism (though the “New Perspective on Paul” is trying to do exactly the opposite by refuting the idea that the Jews were legalists).

Yes, Paul is dealing specifically with the Jewish law. But he seems to be making a broader point about the human desire to be righteous in God’s sight through our own efforts rather than accepting God’s free gift of mercy. I think Luther had some powerful insights here.

You are welcome to disagree, but don’t speak as if those who disagree do so out of ignorance. I know many of the arguments in favor of your position–I simply am not convinced by them. And clearly many Catholics, such as Fr. Cantalamessa, are not either.

Edwin
 
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Contarini:
Your interpretation seems to be popular these days (the “New Perspective on Paul”), but I’m not convinced by it. I think it limits Scripture too much and it promotes smugness–maybe even anti-semitism (though the “New Perspective on Paul” is trying to do exactly the opposite by refuting the idea that the Jews were legalists).

Yes, Paul is dealing specifically with the Jewish law. But he seems to be making a broader point about the human desire to be righteous in God’s sight through our own efforts rather than accepting God’s free gift of mercy. I think Luther had some powerful insights here.

You are welcome to disagree, but don’t speak as if those who disagree do so out of ignorance. I know many of the arguments in favor of your position–I simply am not convinced by them. And clearly many Catholics, such as Fr. Cantalamessa, are not either.

Edwin
What other broader idea could he have been dealing with? Jewish law was the only thing which people considered to have any salvific applications. Jewish people at that time would have been very indoctrinated into their law, and as the saying goes old habits are hard to break. Read the beginning of Pauls letter he specifically addresses “works of the law”. This is his theme throughout his entire letter.
Pegans on the other hand would have had the opposite problem. For they would have had no knowledge of the concept of salvific works. Their main and formost teachings would have been on the belief that Christ was God and the Savior of the world. Their inclinations would have been to just say ok " I accept Him now Im saved" and this James addresses.
But apart from these are you saying that Jesus never taught that works were an essential part of salvation. If so then the goats and the sheep parable make no sense. For both call Him Lord, thus both believed Him to be thus. Not to mention the other references I gave above.
I just love how protestants use the letters to refute Jesus’s own words as if Paul was rejecting his own admonition to let him who teaches a different gospel be anathema.
And your idea that Paul seems to be doing something flies directly into the face of Sola Scriptura, does it not.
 
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tdandh26:
What other broader idea could he have been dealing with? Jewish law was the only thing which people considered to have any salvific applications. Jewish people at that time would have been very indoctrinated into their law, and as the saying goes old habits are hard to break. Read the beginning of Pauls letter he specifically addresses “works of the law”. This is his theme throughout his entire letter.
Pegans on the other hand would have had the opposite problem. For they would have had no knowledge of the concept of salvific works. Their main and formost teachings would have been on the belief that Christ was God and the Savior of the world. Their inclinations would have been to just say ok " I accept Him now Im saved" and this James addresses.
You have set up a false dichotomy between Jews and Gentiles.

Paul’s emphatically states in Rom 3:20 that “NO FLESH” will be justified by works of law.

He makes an even stronger statement to that effect in Gal 3:21:

Galatians 3:21
21 Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law.

Paul here says that there has been no law given that can impart life. Again, no law can impart life.

If there is no law given that can impart life, then it follows that working, in any way, within a law that has never been given, is at best working in vain, and at worst madness.
 
It’s amazing the further time passes, the “more accurate” the interpretations get. It’s amazing that 2000 years after the author put it to paper, and around 1600 years since canon was approved, there is a “new” perspective.

And guys, the word exegesis doesn’t impress me too much. My church got the bible from the authors. Yours borrowed it from us.

I think we all need to take a chill pill on our wonderful interpretations of God’s word. I am frankly humbled by scripture. I’ll let the guys Jesus wanted to interpret scripture do the interpreting - the Catholic Church.
 
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tdandh26:
What other broader idea could he have been dealing with?
I think I already said. The human tendency to think that we can somehow impress God by our own efforts.
Jewish law was the only thing which people considered to have any salvific applications.
I’m not sure what you mean by this. But insofar as you’re right, this actually supports my point. Of course Paul is speaking of Jewish law, because that is what his audience were tempted to use as a means of earning their salvation. But the same principle applies wherever the same attitude appears. Our relationship to God is based on God’s free gift, and anything that compromises this is suspect.
Jewish people at that time would have been very indoctrinated into their law, and as the saying goes old habits are hard to break.
If the Gospel is merely about “breaking old habits”–abandoning one law to take up another–then what’s the point?
Pegans on the other hand would have had the opposite problem. For they would have had no knowledge of the concept of salvific works.
Depends on what you mean. As I understand it, pagan religion consisted largely of ritual. I’m not sure it did make the same sort of connection between morality and religion that Judaism and Christianity did/do. But on the other hand, Greco-Roman paganism was largely based on the idea of bargaining with the gods, if I’m not mistaken. So the sort of thing Paul’s attacking *would *be relevant for converts from paganism.
Their main and formost teachings would have been on the belief that Christ was God and the Savior of the world. Their inclinations would have been to just say ok " I accept Him now Im saved" and this James addresses.
I’m not sure about this. I get the impression that James is addressing Jewish Christians, and Paul is more likely to be the one writing for a Gentile audience.
But apart from these are you saying that Jesus never taught that works were an essential part of salvation.
Of course not. Just where do you get the impression that Protestants as a whole teach this? Lutherans dance around it, admittedly, and of course the U.S. is overrun with Baptist heretics with antinomian leanings. But neither Lutherans (who in my opinion are not heretical so much as a bit too jittery) nor antinomian Baptists (who do not make up the entirety of the Baptist tradition bya ny means) represent all Protestants.

The traditional Protestant point of view is that works are part of salvation, but are not the basis for justification. Some Protestants are willing to speak of a final justification based on works, but reject the view that initial justification is based on works. Catholics reject this too, if I’m not mistaken. So what is the fuss about?

There are real differences between Protestants and Catholics on soteriology–such as the Catholic idea that unformed, nonsalvific faith is a supernatural gift, which most Protestants deny. Whether or not works are part of salvation (when salvation is understood as the entire process by which God unites us to Himself), however, is not a point of controversy between Protestants as a whole and Catholics.
I just love how protestants use the letters to refute Jesus’s own words as if Paul was rejecting his own admonition to let him who teaches a different gospel be anathema.
You might try learning something about Protestant theology before indulging your irony. You could try the writings of hardline anti-Catholics like James White, just to relieve any suspicion you have that I’m giving you some spiel that is unique to Anglicans.
And your idea that Paul seems to be doing something flies directly into the face of Sola Scriptura, does it not.
Quite possibly you don’t understand sola scriptura any better than you do sola fide. I don’t think any classic version of sola scriptura excludes the possibility that a Biblical writer may “seem” to say this or that. Why on earth would it?

Besides, I don’t claim to believe in either sola scriptura or sola fide–I don’t think they are useful slogans, precisely because so many people associate them with very silly theology. I don’t think a slogan-based theology is generally a good idea.

I do believe that the sole ground of our initial justification is the free grace of God given through Jesus Christ and received by faith.

I also believe that all Apostolic Tradition which Christians are bound to obey is found within Holy Scripture, so that whatever cannot be shown to be there (when due respect is paid to the rule of faith handed down by the historic tradition of Christianity) should not be required of Christians as a matter of faith or defined as dogma.

You can tell me if these two statements correspond to “sola fide” and “sola scriptura” or not. I don’t really care either way.

Edwin
 
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sandusky:
I posted this on another thread, but as worded, it should suffice here as well.

Blessings,

What does James mean by his statement: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (2:24)? It has always been urged by Roman Catholic apologists …

If you deny that, then you must insist that scripture, in the writings of Paul and James, contradicts itself with respect to justification.
Contradiction only arises where one reads Paul as teaching that a person is justified by faith alone. But, of course, Paul NEVER states faith *alone * saves. Instead, he teaches that works done without faith do not save - a profoundly different statement. Catholics readily accept both Paul’s teaching and James’s teaching because they are consistent. Works without faith cannot save. Faith without works cannot save. Faith and works are both required by God for salvation. (In a nutshell)

BTW - If James were really referring to “sanctification” as opposed to “salvation” why did he not make that distinction? I don’t think it was James that was confused here. Rather, it was those who came 1500 years later who were confused.

-Peace.
 
am confused …who is it exactly that believes salvation thru faith only?? :confused:
 
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