A
Ana_v
Guest
Can. 1142
Next, here is the other portion I hope for clarification on:
Can. 1143 §1.
So for example, would this apply to a scenario in which say, a civil marriage is contracted between two-atheists, is consummated, but down the road, one of the spouses later converts to Catholicism, and marital problems arise such that the still-atheist spouse initiates divorce… the Catholic spouse will become free to enter into a new marriage? The previous marriage was valid, but dissoluble?
What about the same scenario, except that instead of Catholicism, one spouses converts to Protestantism (and is baptized), the other remaining an atheist? Since the Church recognizes Protestant baptism, would the Church recognize as a valid, a new marriage entered into by the Protestant?
I want to make sure that I am understanding correctly. Does this mean that, even if the a marriage between two Catholics is validly contracted – they marry according to the form prescribed by the Church and meet the criteria for a valid marriage – it can nonetheless be dissolved so long as the spouses have no relations? Does such a situation need to be verified (not sure how it would be), or, is the spouse taken at his/her word, when stating that his/her marriage has not been consummated?A non-consummated marriage between baptised persons or between a baptised party and an unbaptised party can be dissolved by the Roman Pontiff for a just reason, at the request of both parties or of either party, even if the other is unwilling.
Next, here is the other portion I hope for clarification on:
Can. 1143 §1.
Examples (hypothetical or real) help me to understand.A marriage entered into by two non-baptized persons is dissolved by means of the pauline privilege in favor of the faith of the party who has received baptism by the very fact that a new marriage is contracted by the same party, provided that the non-baptized party departs.
So for example, would this apply to a scenario in which say, a civil marriage is contracted between two-atheists, is consummated, but down the road, one of the spouses later converts to Catholicism, and marital problems arise such that the still-atheist spouse initiates divorce… the Catholic spouse will become free to enter into a new marriage? The previous marriage was valid, but dissoluble?
What about the same scenario, except that instead of Catholicism, one spouses converts to Protestantism (and is baptized), the other remaining an atheist? Since the Church recognizes Protestant baptism, would the Church recognize as a valid, a new marriage entered into by the Protestant?