I was just wondering why would something as significant as the Pharaoh forced to let an entire nation of Israelites free because he was defeated by plagues and his army drowned into the in the sea be not recorded in Egyptian or any other kind of history?
The invasion of the Israelites into the promised land has archaeological evidence; they had to have come from “somewhere”.
The record of Pharaoh, though, is a separate issue.
The Pharaoh’s names at the time were Ra-mses; Ra is the God portion of the name.
I am not sure of the exact Egyptian mythology, but I do know that when a member of the pharoah’s household fell into disrespect – the “Ra” portion of the name is struck out. In my honors introduction to world Religions, taught by a Fr. Hosinski at University of Portland; pointed out that there is some archeological evidence of a “Ramses” who’s God name was struck out, and reduced to “moses”.
Moses, depicted in the bible, is considered a “god” equal to pharaoh (a son of his household) so that it was not a “foreign” nation that was involved in the fight as far as Egyptian historians would record. They were merely migrant workers/indentured servants and the rebellion would be little more in their eyes than a financial deal gone sour.
Look here:
Exodu 4:14 The Lord being angry at Moses, said: Aaron the Levite is thy brother, I know that he is eloquent: behold he cometh forth to meet thee, and seeing thee, shall be glad at heart.
Exodu 4:15 Speak to him, and put my words in his mouth: and I will be in thy mouth, and in his month, and will shew you what you must do.
Exodu 4:16 He shall speak in thy stead to the people, and shall be thy mouth: but thou shalt be to him in those things that pertain to God.
The pharaoh was considered a god or demi-god; and Moses being the son of Pharaoh (adoption or origin is irrelevant as far as I know, but I could be wrong) would be spoken of using the same language; Moses was “god” in the Egyptian sense of the word.
Psalm 81:1 A psalm for Asaph. God hath stood in the congregation of gods: and being in the midst of them he judgeth gods.
…
Psalm 81:4 Rescue the poor; and deliver the needy out of the hand of the sinner.
Psalm 81:5 They have not known nor understood: they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth shall be moved.
Psalm 81:6 I have said: You are gods and all of you the sons of the most High.
Psalm 81:7 But you like men shall die: and shall fall like one of the princes.
Psalm 81:8 Arise, O God, judge thou the earth: for thou shalt inherit among all the nations.
Jesus notices this when referring to his own deity being superior to that of human rulers;
John 10:34 Jesus answered them: Is it not written in your law: I said, you are gods?
John 10:35 If he called them gods
to whom the word of God was spoken; and the scripture cannot be broken:
John 10:36 Do you say of him whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world: Thou blasphemest; because I said: I am the Son of God?
From John, I gather that there are some men (including Moses) whom God calls “gods”; for scripture was not written for the sake of angels but for men.
Even Adam is called “son of God” in the genealogy of Luke.
Regarding history:
Loosers do not often chronicle their defeat in great detail, but generally tend to minimize it’s impact on their national pride. It depends on how one reads the text of the bible as to what one looks for in history as corroboration; also, if the “Pharaoh” died during an internal squabble in his own house – there isn’t much glory in the Pharaoh who ascended the throne in saying he got it for “free”. Politics dictate how the history would be recorded within Egypt.
There is some speculation that the escape actually happened in the “reed sea” rather than the “red sea”; and that the scriptures we have today are an exaggeration of the manner of speaking which the people of the time used; cf. Hosinski,
but in my own attempts to check his theory, I find that all biblical texts today record the encampment on the other side of the sea, after the Pharaoh was evaded, are all consistent in spelling; saying that it was the “red sea” not the “reed sea” that they encamped against. This is something I need to return to as I get better at Hebrew, for I have been studying primarily from the Greek – and would like to understand the meaning of the texts better; but I wouldn’t say there is “no” historical evidence of the Exodus. (Frauds aside…)
