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DavidJoseph
Guest
I know someone who doesn’t believe the Novus Ordo Mass is a valid Mass if it’s not said in Latin, thanks to the old “for many” vs. “for all” argument. Just for the record, he goes to an indult Tridentine Mass; he’s not a member of the SSPX or anything like that. I have various arguments for why “for all” doesn’t invalidate the Mass, so that’s not my question here. My question is, what kind of sin is it, objectively speaking, to deny the Novus Ordo’s validity if said in a certain language? In other words, is it venial or mortal, and why? Also, would the sin be considered heresy or another type of sin? Thanks in advance.