S
Stylteralmaldo
Guest
I was under the impression that all marriages were considered valid unless proven otherwise. I got this impression because of what I have learned regarding the annulment process (which I admit I am certainly a novice).
It seems that with Father Serpa’s response to the question in the link I am providing, the opposite appears to be true. That instead of a marriage being presumed valid, it is presumed invalid unless proven to be valid.
For example, I have heard that if someone is looking to get married and have been previously married to someone else in which the marriage ended in divorce, the Church presumes the first marriage valid and therefore the couple looking to get married must remain celebate because it is presumed that since the first marriage has not been annulled, the first marriage is presumed valid meaning that if the couple had sexual relations it may mean (barring a nullity grant) that the previously married person would be committing adultery. That makes sense to me.
However, the Q&A statement from Fr. Serpa seems to say that the couple would be essentially fornicating since neither party has been previously married. This doesn’t seem to make sense to me because it presumes the marriage is invalid. Is this because one person was Catholic? Had the two of them been another faith, would the same standard apply? If the standards are different, please let me know why they are different so I can better understand.
Thanks!
Here’s the link:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=252693
It seems that with Father Serpa’s response to the question in the link I am providing, the opposite appears to be true. That instead of a marriage being presumed valid, it is presumed invalid unless proven to be valid.
For example, I have heard that if someone is looking to get married and have been previously married to someone else in which the marriage ended in divorce, the Church presumes the first marriage valid and therefore the couple looking to get married must remain celebate because it is presumed that since the first marriage has not been annulled, the first marriage is presumed valid meaning that if the couple had sexual relations it may mean (barring a nullity grant) that the previously married person would be committing adultery. That makes sense to me.
However, the Q&A statement from Fr. Serpa seems to say that the couple would be essentially fornicating since neither party has been previously married. This doesn’t seem to make sense to me because it presumes the marriage is invalid. Is this because one person was Catholic? Had the two of them been another faith, would the same standard apply? If the standards are different, please let me know why they are different so I can better understand.
Thanks!
Here’s the link:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=252693