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DaveBj
Guest
I had an interesting encounter with our parish priest this morning. In his homily, he commented that some have the impression that because Mary did not have original sin, she was somehow less than fully human. He did refute that notion satisfactorily.
Afterwards in the vestibule I commented that it was my impression that it is we sinners who are somewhat less than fully human, while Mary, not having been touched by original sin, would have been completely human. He responded that that was an interesting way to see it, but it was not the way the Church sees it.
That surprised me. I will admit to ignorance of the fine points of theology and philosophy, but it seems to me that Adam and Eve, in their state of innocence, would have been completely human. Then as a result of the fall, they lost something, or several somethings (innocence and sanctifying grace, for two), and those losses would have made them less than what they were before. Therefore, if they were completely human before the fall, they were less than human after it.
I would be interested in other viewpoints on this, but I would be more interested if someone could point me to authoritative Church teaching stating that fallen man the definition of “completely human.”
DaveBj
Afterwards in the vestibule I commented that it was my impression that it is we sinners who are somewhat less than fully human, while Mary, not having been touched by original sin, would have been completely human. He responded that that was an interesting way to see it, but it was not the way the Church sees it.
That surprised me. I will admit to ignorance of the fine points of theology and philosophy, but it seems to me that Adam and Eve, in their state of innocence, would have been completely human. Then as a result of the fall, they lost something, or several somethings (innocence and sanctifying grace, for two), and those losses would have made them less than what they were before. Therefore, if they were completely human before the fall, they were less than human after it.
I would be interested in other viewpoints on this, but I would be more interested if someone could point me to authoritative Church teaching stating that fallen man the definition of “completely human.”
DaveBj