T
Topper17
Guest
Hi Jon,
A couple of things. You said:
I would also like to comment on your response to Annie. She said:
On the other hand, was it possibly “inaccurate” of you to describe your Lutheran interpretation as being correct ‘with certainty’? It seems to me that you can’t have it both ways, that is unless you ‘redefine’ at least one or two of the terms “certain”, “infallible”, and/or “inerrancy”.
I would suggest that there is a pretty glaring Achilles’s Heel in your position. As you know, it is in the specifics and the exacts that false beliefs become obvious for what they are. Could you please explain how you can pronounce your ‘certainty’ without appealing to some kind of ‘infallibility or inerrancy’?
God Bless You Jon, Topper
A couple of things. You said:
Jon, as a matter of fact, you know, for a fact, that in the initial stage of Luther’s Revolt against the Catholic Church, he did NOT practice SS in AT ALL the same way as do current Lutherans, but MUCH more like the most independent of those who today practice Private Interpretation. As you know, we have covered this very well (with more to come) over on the “Belief” thread in the Apologetics forum.Lutherans are not held to Luther. Luther himself falls under sola scriptura. But confessional Lutherans today practice SS in essentially the same way it was practiced in the Reformation era, and frankly, I am not convinced that Luther would have seen it done much differently.
I would also like to comment on your response to Annie. She said:
In other words you don’t really know if your (Lutheran) interpretation is correct.
Jon, this makes absolutely no sense to me. You claim to be ‘certain’, and somehow your ‘certainty’ does not ‘require infallibility or inerrancy’? If there is no infallibility or inerrancy, then what, specifically and exactly of course, is that ‘certainty’ based on? It seems to me that you have a completely unrealistic level of confidence in those late 16th century theologians (and politicians) who formulated the Lutheran Confessions, a confidence that you would not place in many of the historic Councils. Why the clear difference in your confidence in those Lutheran Theologians, without appealing to Private Interpretation of course?Oh, no. We are certain it is correct. Being correct does not necessarily require infallibility or inerrancy.
On the other hand, was it possibly “inaccurate” of you to describe your Lutheran interpretation as being correct ‘with certainty’? It seems to me that you can’t have it both ways, that is unless you ‘redefine’ at least one or two of the terms “certain”, “infallible”, and/or “inerrancy”.
I would suggest that there is a pretty glaring Achilles’s Heel in your position. As you know, it is in the specifics and the exacts that false beliefs become obvious for what they are. Could you please explain how you can pronounce your ‘certainty’ without appealing to some kind of ‘infallibility or inerrancy’?
God Bless You Jon, Topper