I have never heard this assertion made. Actually, I can’t see how the two are connected. It seems to me that Luther had problems with the CC for quite some time before he created this doctrine. His complaints about corruption would have been the same even if everyone had a Bible on their shelf. Luther wanted a more pure source by which clergy could be measured, and the most pure he could think of was the Scripture.
I have heard it asserted that the CC withheld the scriptures so that the laity would not be able to know how corrupted they clergy had become. There is some truth to that in wsome areas of Europe. Clerical offices were bought and sold, and there were some people ordained as priests that knew little more than the laity (very poor formation).
I am not so sure this was true in the first to third centuries. The level of literacy in the Roman Empire was much higher than it was in Europe during the middle ages. The sheer number and breadth of distribution of manuscripts of what is now our NT is amazing given the political and religious persecution of the time.
Well you history is leaving a gap of about 1200 years during which a lot of political and economic issues impacted literacy.
Even after the printing press, the Church was very cautious about distribution of the Bible. This is why there were issues with Tyndale and Wycliffe. The Church did not tolerate any unauthorized translations.
It cannot escape our notice that the first book he decided to publish was a Bible.
But I do agree, there were many factors involved in the Reformation, most of them not even theological. One has to admit, however, that the end result is just exactly what the Church most feared - SS essentially made everyone their own authority over the meaning of the Scriptures, to the great disgust of Luther and other Reformers, who did not tolerate hterodoxy either.
**
Was such an assertion made on this thread?**
More accusations toward the Church with absolutely NOTHING to back it up.
Can you provide some accurate reference to:
“the Church withheld the Bible so the laity would not know how corrupt the clergy had become?”
That is actually an absurd ad hominem. In fact all of your statements on this particular topic are ad hominems.
Secondly as I stated earlier: the literacy rate was on
the increase and Bibles affordably printed before
Luther was out of short pants.
The Bibles were distributed not just by the Church
the laity had their own in many cases.
The Church demanding a particular translation be
used or chaining expensive handwritten Bibles
to the pulpit is NOT evidence that the Church withheld
the Bible from the laity.