NT question pertaining to alleged OT prophecy

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HashemEchad

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I’d be very interested in knowing how those familiar with the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible explain this.

In the NT (Mt 2:23), it says that Jesus was from Nazareth “so that it might be fulfilled what was spoken through the prophets, 'He shall be called a Nazarene”.

Would some Christian be so kind as to show me exactly where in the Jewish Bible (OT) this prophecy is given?

Thank you.
 
Someone will be of more help , but I think it is
Micah 5:2 “But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah,
who are too little to be among the clans of Judah,
from you shall come forth for me
one who is to be ruler in Israel,
whose coming forth is from of old,
from ancient days.”

Jesus was born in Bethlehem not in Nazarath. His family lived in Nazarath.
 
HashemEchad said:
I’d be very interested in knowing how those familiar with the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible explain this.

In the NT (Mt 2:23), it says that Jesus was from Nazareth “so that it might be fulfilled what was spoken through the prophets, 'He shall be called a Nazarene”.

Would some Christian be so kind as to show me exactly where in the Jewish Bible (OT) this prophecy is given?

Thank you.
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You’re starting with a false premise of the meaning of that scripture.
 
blossom02 said:
Someone will be of more help , but I think it is
Micah 5:2 “But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah,
who are too little to be among the clans of Judah,
from you shall come forth for me
one who is to be ruler in Israel,
whose coming forth is from of old,
from ancient days.”

Jesus was born in Bethlehem not in Nazarath. His family lived in Nazarath.
Click to expand...
I realise he was born in Bethlehem. But the NT says he grew up in Nazareth because it was a fulfillment of OT prophecy.

See Matt. 2:23: "And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, ‘He shall be called a Nazarene’.

Problem is, there is no OT reference of Nazareth, or any prophecy that the Messiah would be called a Nazarene.
 
Here’s how Haydock addresses the matter:Ver. 23. He shall be called a Nazarite, or a Nazarene.[5] Jesus was called a Nazarite, from the place where he was bred up in Galilee; and the Christians by the Jews were sometimes called Nazarenes, from Jesus of Nazareth. The evangelist would shew that this name, which the Jews through contempt gave to Christ and his disciples, had an honourable signification: and that this title was given in the predictions of the prophets to the Messias. But where, or in what prophet? For we find not the words exactly in any of the prophets. To this St. Chrysostom answers, that St. Matthew took it from some prophetical writings that have been lost. St. Jerome gives two other answers: first, that the word Nazarene, from the Hebrew Nezer, signifies separated, and distinguished from others by virtue and sanctity: and so some that were particularly consecrated, and devoted to the service of God, were called Nazareans, as Joseph, (Deuteronomy xxxiii. 16,) Sampson, (Judges xvi. 17,) &c. Thus a Nazarene signifies one that is holy: and all the prophets, says St. Jerome, foretold that Christ should be holy. Therefore also it was that St. Matthew did not cite any one prophet, but the prophets in general. The second answer is, that a Nazarean (if derived from the Hebrew Netser) signifies a flower, or bud; and so in the prophet Isaias, chap. xi. ver. 1) it is foretold of the Messias, that a flower shall ascend from the root of David. (Witham) — The reason why Jesus is called of Nazareth, and not of Bethlehem, is, because he was educated there, and was generally supposed to have been born there. Hence he was called the Galilean; and the people argued from that circumstance, that he was not the Messias, nor even a prophet, saying, Can the Christ come from Galilee? Search the Scriptures, and see that out of Galilee a prophet riseth not. (John vii. 52.) Again, in Nazareth the word was made flesh, though in Bethlehem he was produced to the world; and our Lord gives himself the same title, when he addressed Saul. I am Jesus of Nazareth, whom thou persecutest. (Acts xxii.) He remained at Nazareth till he was about 30 years of age. (Haydock)
 
Not sure who Haydock is, but he evidently does not realize that a nazarene is not the same as a nazarite.

A “NazarENE” is someone from the town of Nazareth in Israel.

A “NazaRITE” is a Jewish male who is specially consecrated to God, and who cannot cut his hair or drink anything made from grapes (see the story of Samson in the Book of Judges, for an example of a NazaRITE).

I suspect Matthew made this same mistake.
 
HashemEchad said:
I’d be very interested in knowing how those familiar with the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible explain this.

In the NT (Mt 2:23), it says that Jesus was from Nazareth “so that it might be fulfilled what was spoken through the prophets, 'He shall be called a Nazarene”.

Would some Christian be so kind as to show me exactly where in the Jewish Bible (OT) this prophecy is given?

Thank you.
Click to expand...
it was not meant to be a single prophecy by one prophet but a theme written by prophets : rejection.
 
HashemEchad said:
I’d be very interested in knowing how those familiar with the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible explain this.

In the NT (Mt 2:23), it says that Jesus was from Nazareth “so that it might be fulfilled what was spoken through the prophets, 'He shall be called a Nazarene”.

Would some Christian be so kind as to show me exactly where in the Jewish Bible (OT) this prophecy is given?

Thank you.
Click to expand...
It’s not. Guess that just means the whole thing is made up.🤷
then again just as everything Jesus said and did was not written down maybe there was a prophecy that was told orally I mean the passage from ST. Matthew does say spoken. Just a thought.
 
Actually this is the only time Matthew uses ProphetS. In all his quotes, he either names the prophet or says prophet in singular. In this case he used something he did not before because he meant something different than before, he meant the theme of rejection rather than a prophet’s prophecy.
 
oneGODoneCHURCH said:
It’s not. Guess that just means the whole thing is made up.🤷
then again just as everything Jesus said and did was not written down maybe there was a prophecy that was told orally I mean the passage from ST. Matthew does say spoken. Just a thought.
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I think that “spoken” here meant, “spoken by God through the prophets”. Not a verbal tradition among the prohets.
 
HashemEchad said:
Not sure who Haydock is, but he evidently does not realize that a nazarene is not the same as a nazarite.
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Haydock is a priest from the 18th-19th century. The commentary I linked to is his compilation of mostly other ECFs on various Scripture passages. As you can see from what I linked, he summarized what St. John Chrysostom, St. Jerome, and 18th century scholar Fr. Robert Witham had to say about the verse.

So your issue is with one of them, I gather.
 
Joe_Kelley said:
Pity that Saint Matthew did not take the time to become familiar with the Jewish religion. :rolleyes:
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Yes. Because if he had, he would have realized Jesus could not possibly be the JEWISH messiah.

Remember, just because someone “is Jewish” does not at all make them an expert on Jewish Law, Jewish prophecy or Judaism. You can find that out when you realize that most Jews are very ignorant of their own religion.
 
HashemEchad said:
Not sure who Haydock is, but he evidently does not realize that a nazarene is not the same as a nazarite.

A “NazarENE” is someone from the town of Nazareth in Israel.

A “NazaRITE” is a Jewish male who is specially consecrated to God, and who cannot cut his hair or drink anything made from grapes (see the story of Samson in the Book of Judges, for an example of a NazaRITE).

I suspect Matthew made this same mistake.
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You are actually correct with your terms. I just studied this;)
My study bible says(NASB version) He will be called a Nazarene. These exact words are not found in the OT and probably refer to several OT prefigurations and/or predictions(note plural of prophets) that the Messiah would be despised(Psalm 22:6, Isa 53:3) for in Jesus’s day “Nazarene” was virtually a synonym for “despised”(John 1:45-46) Some hold that in speaking of Jesus as a “Nazarene”, Matthew may be alluding to the “Branch” (hebrew word neser) is Isa 11:1, since the word also appears in the Targums, Rabbinic lit, and the dead sea scrolls, as a Messianic title.

Hope that helps;)
 
HashemEchad said:
Yes. Because if he had, he would have realized Jesus could not possibly be the JEWISH messiah.

Remember, just because someone “is Jewish” does not at all make them an expert on Jewish Law, Jewish prophecy or Judaism. You can find that out when you realize that most Jews are very ignorant of their own religion.
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This is true of every religion. I know more about Judaism and catholocism then my friends who belong to those respective religions.
Im just a born again chrisitan who studies the bible.👍
 
MH84 said:
I think that “spoken” here meant, “spoken by God through the prophets”. Not a verbal tradition among the prohets.
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I agree but it still does not mean that it was written down.
 
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