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Annie39
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I’m confused. Since the canon of Scripture was not formed until later in the 4th century, how could the Arians misinterpret scripture? Can anyone explain?
Thanks, Annie
Thanks, Annie
The late-4th-century date is pretty artificial. That’s when a couple of local Councils articulated a canonical list that matches the Catholic canon used today.I’m confused. Since the canon of Scripture was not formed until later in the 4th century, how could the Arians misinterpret scripture? Can anyone explain?
Thanks, Annie
There was not a defined Canon of Scripture until the 4th century, but there were “new” writings that were considered as Scripture prior to that. It was a work-in-progress, so to speak. As time went on and many books/letters were written, there arose the need for the Church to define which of these were indeed the Inspired Word. But an important thing to keep in mind is that this definition was to say “these books ARE the Inspired Word” (not a quote…but more of a paraphrase) but they did NOT say , “these and ONLY these…”. In other words, just because a book was not placed in the Canon does not necessarily mean it’s not Scripture, per se,…but the Canon gives us the list of books that we can rely on as being Scripture.Thank you Edwin. As you can read from the topic, I was referring to the New Testament. Would you point me to a canon earlier than the 4th century? One that would include but not be limited to Paul’s epistles. I would of course hope that this canon would include IIPeter.
Thanks again,
Annie
Have you come across these:I’m confused. Since the canon of Scripture was not formed until later in the 4th century, how could the Arians misinterpret scripture? Can anyone explain?
Thanks, Annie
Athanasius was the chief opponent of Arius…According to its opponents, especially Athanasius, Arius’ teaching reduced the Son to a demigod, reintroduced polytheism (since the worship of the Son was not abandoned), and undermined the Christian concept of redemption since only Christ who was truly God could redeem the world. From the outset, the controversy between both parties took place upon the common basis of the Neoplatonic concept of ousia (“substance” or “stuff”), which was foreign to the New Testament itself.Yes, that is correct. However my problem here is that there was no complete consensus on which of those writings were considered scripture and which were not. As examples some Churches canons included the Shepherd of Hermes, some excluded Hebrews. If memory serves, all four Gospels were accepted as scripture very early on, before the first council of Nicaea. So, I’m wondering the Arians were using those books to deny Jesus’ divinity.
The Muratorian canon is the earliest attempt we have at a comprehensive list–usually dated to about 170.Thank you Edwin. As you can read from the topic, I was referring to the New Testament. Would you point me to a canon earlier than the 4th century? One that would include but not be limited to Paul’s epistles. I would of course hope that this canon would include IIPeter.
Thanks again,
Annie
Thanks for the web address. I plan to read it ASAP. It seems that the council determined the correct interpretation of the Gospels regarding the Person of Jesus Christ. It seems that both the Arians and the Catholics were using the same Gospels but interpreting them differently. So the Arians were, it seems, the original sola scriptura believers even if they didn’t define the doctrine.Athanasius was the chief opponent of Arius…According to its opponents, especially Athanasius, Arius’ teaching reduced the Son to a demigod, reintroduced polytheism (since the worship of the Son was not abandoned), and undermined the Christian concept of redemption since only Christ who was truly God could redeem the world. From the outset, the controversy between both parties took place upon the common basis of the Neoplatonic concept of ousia (“substance” or “stuff”), which was foreign to the New Testament itself.
ntcanon.org/Arianism.shtml
At this time, I think there was a general consensus of the 4 gospels…![]()
Hi again Edwin,The Muratorian canon is the earliest attempt we have at a comprehensive list–usually dated to about 170.
And no, it doesn’t include 2 Peter, which was one of the books often disputed.
I cited 2 Peter as evidence that early Christians saw Paul’s letters as Scripture. Whether it is itself Scripture is irrelevant for that point.
Again, the basic issue here is the fallacy that if you haven’t decided the precise limits of the canon you don’t have Scripture.
As I said, 2 Peter clearly sees Paul’s letters as Scripture, and Irenaeus cites the earlier writer Papias (early 2nd century) talking about the Gospels. Irenaeus explicitly endorses a four-Gospel canon.
If you deny the apostolicity of 2 Peter, you can make a case that the New Testament wasn’t treated as Scripture until well into the second century. But certainly long before the fourth.
Edwin
I meant to mention that Irenaeus writes in Adversus Haereses:The Muratorian canon is the earliest attempt we have at a comprehensive list–usually dated to about 170.
And no, it doesn’t include 2 Peter, which was one of the books often disputed.
I cited 2 Peter as evidence that early Christians saw Paul’s letters as Scripture. Whether it is itself Scripture is irrelevant for that point.
Again, the basic issue here is the fallacy that if you haven’t decided the precise limits of the canon you don’t have Scripture.
As I said, 2 Peter clearly sees Paul’s letters as Scripture, and Irenaeus cites the earlier writer Papias (early 2nd century) talking about the Gospels. Irenaeus explicitly endorses a four-Gospel canon.
If you deny the apostolicity of 2 Peter, you can make a case that the New Testament wasn’t treated as Scripture until well into the second century. But certainly long before the fourth.
Edwin