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Seeker1961
Guest
Paul was writing to churches…all of his letters were to established churches that he founded. This is basic theology taught in any Catholic college, we even learned that in theology in high school. Therefore, he is giving instruction to those who have made, or who are interested in making a commitment to Jesus.That letter in particular was addressed to the Romans. Are you going to imply that the French or the Brazilians could be exempted from these teachings?
Please note St. Paul is very clearly saying “man” “women” I doubt that his admonishments can be construed to be applied just to the particular recipients.
On the contrary I would submit to you he sent that letter precisely because the Romans were indulging in those practices. What other possible reason could he have?
Unfortunately it seems that in 2000 years we have changed very little.
Those of us who have chosen to commit their lives to Christ live under a different set of rules than secular society. Our commission is not to force secular society to obey those rules but to lead people to Jesus so He can change their lives. I say this as one He changed-no earthly power could have done what He did. No amount of “fraternal correction” could have done what He did, and I heard plenty of it. I was fortunate enough to have a decent number of Catholics in my life that understood that His power was greater and to let Him do the work. It is because of their witness that I am not one of the “nones” today.