L
ltravis
Guest
I am not sure which section this post belongs in because it could actually fit into several, so forgive me if I made a poor choice. Anyway, today’s O.T. reading spoke again of the abolition of the old law to make way for the new covenant. I am wondering what the reality of this is and its implications today. Before I get specific here is the part of the reading I am referring to:
For he is our peace, he who made both one and broke down the dividing wall of enmity, through his flesh, abolishing the law with its commandments and legal claims, that he might create in himself one new person in place of the two, thus establishing peace. (Eph 2:14-15).
My question: is the old law really abolished? Isn’t is still “in effect” but just fully complete now? As I understand it, God always upholds His covenants, so “abolish” doesn’t quite seem accurate. The Church lately has made statements to that effect as well. In 2002, it specifically declared that the old covenant still holds quite binding for Jews and that Catholics shouldn’t even seek to “convert” them. One of many of the statements from that Catholic-Jewish consultation:
This view of the Church was certainly enlightening to me when I first heard it, but I don’t know how it “jives” with today’s reading suggesting that the old law was being abolished and the Jews of that time needed to join the Gentiles in the new covenant. Can anyone shed some light here?
LT
For he is our peace, he who made both one and broke down the dividing wall of enmity, through his flesh, abolishing the law with its commandments and legal claims, that he might create in himself one new person in place of the two, thus establishing peace. (Eph 2:14-15).
My question: is the old law really abolished? Isn’t is still “in effect” but just fully complete now? As I understand it, God always upholds His covenants, so “abolish” doesn’t quite seem accurate. The Church lately has made statements to that effect as well. In 2002, it specifically declared that the old covenant still holds quite binding for Jews and that Catholics shouldn’t even seek to “convert” them. One of many of the statements from that Catholic-Jewish consultation:
jcrelations.net/en/?item=966
This view of the Church was certainly enlightening to me when I first heard it, but I don’t know how it “jives” with today’s reading suggesting that the old law was being abolished and the Jews of that time needed to join the Gentiles in the new covenant. Can anyone shed some light here?
LT