Objective morality

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I’ve heard. But those I know that identify themselves as Catholic don’t seem to have behaviours or views that are consistent with my understanding of Catholicism. To name a few significant attributes of those I know that stand apart from what I’ve seen expressed in this forum:
  • both the married and unmarried make use of contraceptives to prevent pregnancy
  • they see abortion as appropriate for some situation
  • gay marriage is seen as a non-issue
There has been verbal acknowledgments that their views are different from those of the teachings of their church.
So would that make them protestant? They just haven’t left the building yet?
 
ThinkingSapien

**It is as though the bible is a book that they’ve heard of but have never read. I’m not sure what to make of that. **

This is a fair observation. They may not have read it themselves, but have heard it read to them from the pulpit Sunday after Sunday for many years. They know pretty much what the gospels are about. They just don’t spiritually rise to the challenge of heeding them.

But this is pretty much true of many Christians, not just Catholics. In a world saturated with materialism, atheism, and various and sundry distractions, it’s harder than ever to be a true Christian. I blame this on the liberal establishment who have secured under the banner of the 1st Amendment every possible legal permission for anti-Christian zealots to corrupt the youth of America.

But you would only know this if you had been a youth in the 1950s and could remember how relatively clean the moral atmosphere was compared to the putrid present day public morality.
 
ThinkingSapien

**It is as though the bible is a book that they’ve heard of but have never read. I’m not sure what to make of that. **

This is a fair observation. They may not have read it themselves, but have heard it read to them from the pulpit Sunday after Sunday for many years. They know pretty much what the gospels are about. They just don’t spiritually rise to the challenge of heeding them.

But this is pretty much true of many Christians, not just Catholics. In a world saturated with materialism, atheism, and various and sundry distractions, it’s harder than ever to be a true Christian. I blame this on the liberal establishment who have secured under the banner of the 1st Amendment every possible legal permission for anti-Christian zealots to corrupt the youth of America.

But you would only know this if you had been a youth in the 1950s and could remember how relatively clean the moral atmosphere was compared to the putrid present day public morality.
In the 1930s many people here didn’t lock their front door!
 
Truths you cannot see, hear, smell, taste or touch…
Why must there be a single unifying factor? Why not a collection of unifying phenomena, such as the neural connections in our brains and nervous systems?
Is a collection responsible?
A trend is an inadequate basis for a generalisation about the nature of reality - especially in view of the fact that science presupposes a rational mind.
Science only presupposes an ability to discern cause and effect…

So science doesn’t discern a rational mind?
…and that the universe broadly operates along such lines.
Why not entirely?
Do cause-and-effect relationships have insight
? Why not predictive power, if specific cause-and-effect relationships can be stored as information in our neural pathways? What do you imagine ‘insight’ is, if not perception and analysis? These are functions some people’s brains can readily perform.

How do perception and analysis lead to insight? A robot perceives and analyses but it doesn’t understand what it is doing…
Of course - but why assume it is one or the other when we still don’t know everything there is to know about physical reality? Why block off an entire area of enquiry because you don’t wish to be disabused of your supernatural beliefs?
Ditto - with regard to natural beliefs (whatever they may be).
Surely you realise that sensory (name removed by moderator)ut is more complex than you paint it - our senses are all tied in to neural networks. And if you have a stomach ache or a headache, for example, which of the particular senses you listed perceives it? If I feel joy or sadness, how do I put these down to specific senses? And how, by the same token, do I call these things intangible when they affect my whole being?
“my whole being” is an intangible abstraction!
Assuming that we are fully controlled by external factors is the same as assuming that the physical structures and forces that make up our bodies and brains are unable to exert influence in the physical world. Seems a little silly to think so.
They have no choice in the matter…
Since we do many things without making choices it possible that we never make choices - which is the logical conclusion if all our activity has physical causes.
That is only logical if you assume that the choice-making entity, the ‘we’, is separable from our physical being.

It makes not the slightest difference. Our physical being is subject to physical causes.
The nature of reality? You are assuming reality has two natures.
Two aspects. You are assuming reality is monistic.
"A human being
" is not generally equated with “a human body”. You need to explain why you consider yourself to be a rational entity rather than a collection of irrational organs. Did no-one explain to you that all our organs work in concert?

Did anyone explain to you how they produce a rational entity?
I don’t know that computers are completely unaware of what they are doing - they are able to perceive remarkably fine detail, all things considered.
Why should an increase in physical complexity bestow consciousness?
However, they are nowhere near the complexity of brains - be they fish, reptile or mammal. If computer programmers and engineers ever catch up to 3 billion years of neural evolution, we might get closer to understanding how consciousness arises from physical forces.
However, I think studying actual brains is potentially a more fruitful means of inquiry…
A renewed act of faith!
Ironically your view disposes of subjective morality altogether because it turns everything into objective things!

Perhaps it does, but from your perspective, you’ll still have to justify how morality exists independently of the complexity of human perception…If some one tortured you you wouldn’t ask that question…
 
Truths you cannot see, hear, smell, taste or touch…
Such as? Obviously these truths are perceptible, otherwise we could just make them up and no-one would be any the wiser…right?
Is a collection responsible?
Sure. Why not?
So science doesn’t discern a rational mind?
Not an all-encompassing one, no.
Why not entirely?
‘Entirely’ is a too-sweeping generalisation, considering we don’t know how much we don’t know.
How do perception and analysis lead to insight? A robot perceives and analyses but it doesn’t understand what it is doing…
So you assume. What do you think is responsible for ‘understanding’? An entity that stands apart from the physical being?
Ditto - with regard to natural beliefs (whatever they may be).
I am not blocking off avenues of enquiry by supposing reality to be natural; the belief in supernatural realities, however, requires the assumption of realities that by definition, cannot be detected or examined with the means available to us.
“my whole being” is an intangible abstraction!
On the contrary, it’s a very tangible, affective and effective entity.
They have no choice in the matter…
What is choice, then? Choice is the pursuit of one alternative over another alternative. Our neural pathways accomplish this all the time - and as has been pointed out, studies have indicated that these decisions are often made before consciousness joins the party.
It makes not the slightest difference. Our physical being is subject to physical causes.
It also amounts to a physical cause in itself - we are not independent of the web of connections, but that doesn’t mean we are entirely subject to it without exerting our own influence.
Two aspects. You are assuming reality is monistic.
Reality is reality. I simply suppose that reality and nature are one and the same. Anything that interacts with nature, with the physical universe, is likewise physical - how should it be otherwise? By supposing that this is not the case, that there is a layer of reality ‘above’ or ‘beyond’ the physical, you are assuming we already know the limits of physical reality.
Did anyone explain to you how they produce a rational entity?
Not yet, because we don’t know precisely how such a thing happens. Doesn’t mean we should automatically assume that it’s magic. How do water molecules produce ‘wetness’? Not because ‘wetness’ is an intangible concept, but because of the arrangements and interactions of the molecules. My question was asked in response to the apparent assumption that all our body parts somehow operate independently and don’t interact and affect each other.
Why should an increase in physical complexity bestow consciousness?
Maybe just because it can. Why should it not do so?
A renewed act of faith!
Interest, rather. I don’t expect consciousness to be explained in my lifetime.
If some one tortured you you wouldn’t ask that question…
Presumably, if someone did so, they would think it was right for them to do so, or they wouldn’t care, or they would be doing it for fun. Add to that my perception that it’s wrong, and you have four possible perspectives on the one action. Was it still objectively wrong for the Inquisition to torture heretics and witches? They didn’t think so. They thought they were serving a higher good - probably what seemed to them an objective higher good. Is it objectively wrong to torture a terrorist to gain information that might save thousands of innocent lives? Murky waters indeed…
 
tonyrey
**
In the 1930s many people here didn’t lock their front door! **

I can’t remember that far back, but I remember in my boyhood it was still so in the 1940s! 😃

The popularity of crime today has been really great for two trades.

The locksmith and the defense lawyers.
 
I think it is very true that the young today have no conception of how low morals have sunk.

The prison population in this country is higher than the number of college students.

What does that tell you?

Criminality is more popular than education.

Yet I’m not even sure how much of public education today is criminal. I suppose the case could be made that public schools are for some an internship for a life of crime.
 
I think it is very true that the young today have no conception of how low morals have sunk.

The prison population in this country is higher than the number of college students.

What does that tell you?

Criminality is more popular than education.
Maybe criminality is just more affordable than education, in a country that despises welfare systems.
Yet I’m not even sure how much of public education today is criminal. I suppose the case could be made that public schools are for some an internship for a life of crime.
Because growing up in poverty and with few opportunities except to join a gang isn’t enough of an education in criminality, I suppose…
 
These studies merely confirm that the mind and brain are related. Conjunction does not entail causality! It is not self-evident that our **intangible **thoughts can be equated with, or caused by, **tangible **electrical impulses. There is plenty of evidence that our thoughts can produce effects on the body rather than be produced by the body.

Do we behave as if we are robots controlled by physical events or do we act as if **we **can control physical events? 😉 Your answer is revealing…
These studies show that mind and brain are related, yes, but do you think that there is no evidence for causation one way or another?

The stimulation of parts of the brain with chemicals/cuts/magnetic fields happen immediately before things-which-we-might-call-effects, like mood/ability/memory/perceptive changes occur. These things-which-we-might-call-effects regularly follow these stimulations when they are done to other people too. An example of matter-to-mind causation would surely be pricking your finger and feeling pain. Is it just a coincidence, the hitting of a nerve and the subjective feeling of pain? Is it just a coincidence that lobotomy precedes mental health changes, that alcohol consumption accompanies memory lapses, that the infusion of anaesthetics into the blood stream predict the onset of loss of consciousness… etc etc? All through life we assume that affecting the brain affects the mind, but then when the brain is finally starved of oxygen and all function ceases, we assume the mind continues along as if none of this mattered?

Does your computer behave as if it is just a robot, controlled by physical events? Infuriatingly not, in my experience.
 
These studies show that mind and brain are related, yes, but do you think that there is no evidence for causation one way or another?
There is abundant evidence that the mind** controls** the brain and that it receives stimuli from the brain.
The stimulation of parts of the brain with chemicals/cuts/magnetic fields happen immediately before things-which-we-might-call-effects, like mood/ability/memory/perceptive changes occur. These things-which-we-might-call-effects regularly follow these stimulations when they are done to other people too. An example of matter-to-mind causation would surely be pricking your finger and feeling pain. Is it just a coincidence, the merhitting of a nerve and the subjective feeling of pain? Is it just a coincidence that lobotomy precedes mental health changes, that alcohol consumption accompanies memory lapses, that the infusion of anaesthetics into the blood stream predict the onset of loss of consciousness… etc etc? All through life we assume that affecting the brain affects the mind, but then when the brain is finally starved of oxygen and all function ceases, we assume the mind continues along as if none of this mattered?
If their instruments are damaged musicians cannot express themselves.
Does your computer behave as if it is just a robot, controlled by physical events? Infuriatingly not, in my experience.
That is not because it has a mind (of its own!). 🙂
 
There is abundant evidence that the mind** controls** the brain and that it receives stimuli from the brain.

If their instruments are damaged musicians cannot express themselves.

That is not because it has a mind (of its own!). 🙂
Do you think the mind is coextensive with the capacities of the brain? For example, there are some children who are born without a full brain, but who develop connections across the gaps as they grow. When first born, can they be said to have the same mind as any other child, just without the stimulations other children’s brains would provide? Where does this stimulation occur? Where is the stimulator, and where is the point where the stimulator stimulates the mind - is there a physical location?

A more extreme example is Anencephaly, which (according to wikipedia) is a condition where babies lack a major portion of the brain, skull and scalp, due to a defect occurring between 23rd/26th day of pregnancy:

‘The National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS) describes the presentation of this condition as follows: "A baby born with anencephaly is usually blind, deaf, unconscious, and unable to feel pain. Although some individuals with anencephaly may be born with a main brain stem, the lack of a functioning cerebrum permanently rules out the possibility of ever gaining consciousness. Reflex actions such as breathing and responses to sound or touch occur.’

Does that mean that these babies also have minds? I suppose there is also the question of learning - all babies go from having apparently no self-consciousness to learning a great deal about themselves, others and the world in general. Is learning merely remembering what your soul already knew before this life, as Plato would have it? Or does learning represent the development of your mind, by the development of your brain?

Language learning is an important part of this, because conscious thought is so dependent upon it. The mind seems to run on words, (as well as emotions and memories etc etc) would you agree? Give that the prevailing scientific views agree that there are components for language learning that are inherent in the brain from day 1, does that mean that this feature of the mind grows out of the matter of the brain?
 
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