That something is subjectively true for me does not mean that it automatically is not true for you. You err in your conclusion.
I didn’t make a conclusive statement. I asked you a question. A questions you are now dodging.
You said:
Since You started this thread to show me how my statement is contradictory (remember?) then its all on you. Knock yourself out. Because you are never going to make it.
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This is a strawman argument. You are claiming that I use objective statements when I clearly can not.
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Obviously you were mistaken before about my reasoning being circular.
I asked you if these statements you are making are subjective or objective?
Why can’t you answer this very simple question?
Again you are trying to pin opinions that I do not have to try to refute them because you cannot refute what I really said. Another strawman.
I did nothing of the sort.
You said that “truth is in the eye of the beholder”(i.e. subjective). You’ve over and over again made assertions that truth is subjective.
In no way have I distorted your arguments and represented those distortions as yours. I’ve only quoted your words.
The questions I asked you were intended for you to clarify the nature of your statements.
So the strawman claim that you are making seems rather incoherent.
The body of policemen are people given authority by other people. It is all agreement between people. Agreements may be changed and are subjective.
1)That the Aztecs were all in “agreement” that human sacrifice was right does not make human sacrifice morally right. The same is true for the Holocaust committed by Nazi Germany.
Are you seriously going to say that those acts are “moral” because those who committed them were in “agreement”?
2)Agreements about moral principles does not negate objective truth but presupposes it. They are in agreement that these things
ought never to be done, which is an absolute and objective statement in regards to morality, not a subjective one.
You seem to not be able to distinguish between subjective statements and objective ones.
If the police force was an objective entity they would not need the ratification of the people of a country would they?
You’re missing the point. That people ratify a police force for the purpose of enforcing justice by the investigation of crimes presupposes objective morality.
Again you do not see the world as it is.
How do you know? Are you stating this objectively, or subjectively?
Justice is always subjective.
Another objective statement.
That is why we have courts of Law where Laws that people have agreed upon are enforced.
“Laws” presuppose objective moral principles, not merely subjective feelings or opinions.
Each country has its own Law and Justice.
Which are based on absolute and objective moral principles.
No country or culture exists now or has ever existed which has taught that murder, theft, lying, rape, cowardice, addiction, despair, and selfishness are all thought to be good.
If Law and Justice was objective it would be the same all around the world(universe). Which it isnt.
Another absurd statement. What is culturally relative and subjective is
opinions about what is really right and wrong, not right and wrong themselves.
You’re attempting to fudge that distinction.
That the application of justice is not universal does not mean that the principle of justice is not objective.
I have all the logical reasons to disagree. Since the world is subjective, people need to make laws which are (subjective) agreements.
The problem is that there are I fact people who don’t “agree” with “laws” that other people have (subjectively) made without their consent or agreement.
So on what grounds do you base the enforcement of these (subjective) “laws” upon those who don’t agree with them?
We need to agree that there should be police to tend to crime. Nothing illogical about that.
Who is “we”?
What is “crime”? If someone robs you, or even murders a loved one, on what grounds do you base the assertion that it is a criminal?