Hello, I have a problem I can’t work out and any help would be appreciated. The thing is to put yourself in a avoidable occasion of sin is in sinful. So would it be mortal if you put yourself in position to be mortally tempted?
In short, yes. It is in effect, deciding to mortally sin. This is rather obvious.
In long:
“He who is bound under grave sin to reach a certain end is also bound under grave sin to employ the means without which this end cannot be reached; but flight from the immediate occasion of sin is the morally necessary means of avoiding sin, consequently this immediate danger must be avoided. Further, as a man is bound by love for his own person not to expose his bodily life voluntarily to the danger of death, he is, a fortiori, bound by the law of charity not to expose his supernatural life voluntarily to the danger of death, that is, the danger of mortal sin. It is, therefore, in re morali, a sin of the same kind to place one’s self in an immediate occasion of sin, or to desire and commit the sin. It follows from this that a man sins grievously as often as he exposes himself without necessity to the immediate occasion of sin, even if he does not actually sin in this occasion. On the other hand, it is no sin to expose one’s self to a remote danger of sinning if there is a reason for so doing, or if precautionary measures are taken. For such danger can be easily overcome.”
To avoid mortal sin one must avoid near occasions of mortal sin. Otherwise one inevitably falls into it. If one does not show resolve to avoid near occasions of sin, the Confessor is obliged eventually to refuse absolution until this is done and clearly held to.
