R
runningdude
Guest
The old testament allowed for divorce, but did the divorce actually dissolve the marriage, or allow a form of tolerated adultery/polygamy?
Since there were sacraments in the old testament, these were only natural marriages, which to this day can be dissolved in certain circumstances (Pauline/Petrine privilege). Was a similar mechanism responsible for OT divorce?
Or, since there was also no sacrament of reconciliation, and thus no way to forgive adultery if it occurred, was divorce and “remarriage” tolerated in hopes that forgiveness for the resulting adultery would occur after death (when any previous marriage would be dissolved)?
Today, with the sacrament of penance, it is possible to be without sin, thus sin from adultery can be forgiven, thus living in a situation of adultery (an invalid second) would be an affront to the sacrament. However, in the past, would the lack of any means of forgiving adultery lead to a greater acceptance for it, by institutionalizing in the form of a second marriage?
Since there were sacraments in the old testament, these were only natural marriages, which to this day can be dissolved in certain circumstances (Pauline/Petrine privilege). Was a similar mechanism responsible for OT divorce?
Or, since there was also no sacrament of reconciliation, and thus no way to forgive adultery if it occurred, was divorce and “remarriage” tolerated in hopes that forgiveness for the resulting adultery would occur after death (when any previous marriage would be dissolved)?
Today, with the sacrament of penance, it is possible to be without sin, thus sin from adultery can be forgiven, thus living in a situation of adultery (an invalid second) would be an affront to the sacrament. However, in the past, would the lack of any means of forgiving adultery lead to a greater acceptance for it, by institutionalizing in the form of a second marriage?