S
stjosephtomasi
Guest
I know this has probably been discussed elsewhere, but I’d like additional (name removed by moderator)ut on a dialogue I am having with someone struggling to understand God in the Old Testament.
His concerns: God gave many of the laws in the OT to Israel, so these were meant specifically for them in their culture, not always for us today. But he says that sounds like moral relativism. If we are to believe in moral absolutes- then how can we reconcile the Bible indicating that certain things especially in the law of Moses (slavery, death for rebelling children, stoning of non-virgins) were OK back then but not now? Here is a specific example: If today killing a non-virgin on her wedding day is morally wrong, why was it once ok? If morality is absolute, then something which was right then shouldn’t be wrong now. It isn’t consistent.
I have given answers, but would like to hear other thoughts.
His concerns: God gave many of the laws in the OT to Israel, so these were meant specifically for them in their culture, not always for us today. But he says that sounds like moral relativism. If we are to believe in moral absolutes- then how can we reconcile the Bible indicating that certain things especially in the law of Moses (slavery, death for rebelling children, stoning of non-virgins) were OK back then but not now? Here is a specific example: If today killing a non-virgin on her wedding day is morally wrong, why was it once ok? If morality is absolute, then something which was right then shouldn’t be wrong now. It isn’t consistent.
I have given answers, but would like to hear other thoughts.