On Mary: Similarities & Differences between the Orthodox & the Catholics

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This is, I believe, a common misconception. Actually, the dogma of the Immaculate Conception does not say that Mary was free from all of the effects of Original Sin. Rather, it says that she did not have a stain of Original Sin.

…meaning?..
Meaning that I do not agree with you that it “makes NO sense” for Mary to have died prior to being assumed into Heaven – which is the traditional Catholic understanding.

Pope Pius XII clearly didn’t think that it “makes NO sense” either. His Munificentissimus Deus, which contains the dogmatic definition of the Assumption, also contains several reference to her death, e.g.
  1. In the liturgical books which deal with the feast either of the dormition or of the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin there are expressions that agree in testifying that, when the Virgin Mother of God passed from this earthly exile to heaven, what happened to her sacred body was, by the decree of divine Providence, in keeping with the dignity of the Mother of the Word Incarnate, and with the other privileges she had been accorded. Thus, to cite an illustrious example, this is set forth in that sacramentary which Adrian I, our predecessor of immortal memory, sent to the Emperor Charlemagne. These words are found in this volume: “Venerable to us, O Lord, is the festivity of this day on which the holy Mother of God suffered temporal death, but still could not be kept down by the bonds of death, who has begotten your Son our Lord incarnate from herself.”[11]
Alright … I think I’ve said everything that I wanted to on this subject.

My apologies for having offended you. Take care, and have a blessed Easter.
 
Hello Centos,
The “universal mortal condition” to a Catholic is “original sin.”…
In case you missed it, I mean ‘death’.

Whatever you think of original sin, it has to conform to the reality that she died.

May God be with you
 
Hello Centos,
If you’re speaking of the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, it is certainly not a “new idea.”
I am specifically writing at this point of the new idea circulating broadly that she was assumed without having experienced death.

The Immaculate Conception is something we could do a few more rounds on, but it’s pointless. Suffice it to say the Orthodox and early Roman Catholics did not see it’s necessity as you do today.

Since we already knew that this to be a major difference between us today, and it has been discussed before I won’t go further now. Your reasons for believing it are your own.

May God be with you and your family this Holy Easter
 
Hello Centos, I am specifically writing at this point of the new idea circulating broadly that she was assumed without having experienced death.

The Immaculate Conception is something we could do a few more rounds on, but it’s pointless. Suffice it to say the Orthodox and early Roman Catholics did not see it’s necessity as you do today.

Since we already knew that this to be a major difference between us today, and it has been discussed before I won’t go further now. Your reasons for believing it are your own.

May God be with you and your family this Holy Easter
My apologies. I read too many posts and did not follow this one close enough. Honestly I did not know that people are now saying that Mary did not die before being assumed into heaven.

Happy Easter to you and your family also.

May God be with you
 
Honestly I did not know that people are now saying that Mary did not die before being assumed into heaven.
As someone else said earlier, it’s a very modern theory – and even nowadays, I don’t think it’s a very significant movement within the Church.
 
Thanks for all your posts.🙂

Basically then, both East and West agree on the IC, the Assumption [as long as she was assumed into Heaven body and soul after her death].

One more question about the Assumption, do you know how we know this? Is it from tradition? Was it witnessed by someone? I was asked this question recently and do not know the answer.

Someone had also told me in this forum that the Orthodox agreed on the Crowning/Coronation in Heaven, the Mother of God [theotokos] and the Mother of the Church dogmas.

I also heard that though the Apparitions in the West were different, there are apparitions as well. Which are the most famous?
I only know of the one in Egypt, I believe she is called Our Lady of Light.

I have some Protestant friends who believe that Mary had other children, including James. Does the Orthodox church believe she had any other children? Or do they see it as we do, that if she had had other children, she wouldn’t have lived with John.

I am surprised to see that in terms of Mary at least, there seems to be little differences if any, between the East and the West. I’m pleasantly surprised because Mary seems to be a major difference between Catholics and Protestants.

Thanks for your posts. Have a happy Easter Sunday!🙂
 
Hi Maria,
Thanks for all your posts.🙂

Basically then, both East and West agree on the IC,
I cannot agree with this.
One more question about the Assumption, do you know how we know this? Is it from tradition? Was it witnessed by someone? I was asked this question recently and do not know the answer.
Witness of the Apostles which is traditionally taught by the church. Patristic references. Pope Pius XII.
Someone had also told me in this forum that the Orthodox agreed on the Crowning/Coronation in Heaven, the Mother of God [theotokos] and the Mother of the Church dogmas.
These are dogmas? Orthodox know the title of Theotokos. The others I will not vouch for, but they are only honorifics as far as I can tell.
I also heard that though the Apparitions in the West were different, there are apparitions as well.
In the East the apparitions are more like “sightings”. There are typically no messages.

If there were messages, the church would more than likely discount it straightaway.
Which are the most famous?
I only know of the one in Egypt, I believe she is called Our Lady of Light.
I can’t answer this, I don’t pay much attention to them. 🤷 Sorry.
I have some Protestant friends who believe that Mary had other children, including James. Does the Orthodox church believe she had any other children?
No.
Have a happy Easter Sunday!🙂
You too!

Pascha for me is next week!
 
Dear Hesychios,

Under another thread regarding the IC, I received a link to the Feast of the Conception of the Theotokos on Dec. 9,

noeticspace.com/AutoIndex…file=DEC09.DOC

It is so beautiful! 👍 I’m copying an excerpt below:

SESSIONAL HYMN

TONE 1

IN DAYS OF OLD, THE CHOIR OF THE PROPHETS
PROCLAIMED THE PURE AND IMMACULATE DIVINE MAIDEN AND VIRGIN,
WHOM ANNA CONCEIVES, THOUGH SHE IS BARREN AND CHILDLESS!
WE BLESS HER TODAY WITH GLADNESS OF HEART!
FOR WE HAVE BEEN SAVED FOR THE SAKE OF THE ONE//
WHO ALONE IS PURE AND SPOTLESS!

GNE…

IN DAYS OF OLD, THE CHOIR OF THE PROPHETS…

HYMN OF LIGHT

THE WISDOM OF GOD
HAS BUILT FROM A BARREN WOMB A HOUSE FOR HIMSELF:
THE THEOTOKOS MARY.//
ALL AGES REJOICE IN HER!

If this doesn’t sound like the Immaculate Conception, I don’t know what it is then!🤷 Interesting that our Feast of IC is Dec. 8.

I received posts from about 4-5 different Eastern churches, including Coptic, Armenian Apostolic and Ukranian-Greek Orthodox, saying they believe Mary was sinless and immaculate…and that they hold it as a theologumena, which I have no idea what it means, I guess it’s not a dogma, but almost?

Is this different for the Byzantine maybe? Do you have a similar feast which calls Mary “immaculate”?

Does the church discount messages because the era of revelation is closed? Or is there another reason?

It is also “pascua” for me! 🙂 We do the novena for the Divine Mercy as well.
 
^^ Good post; the only thing is, the dogma of the Immaculate Conception doesn’t just say that Mary was sinless/immaculate, but that she was conceived without “stain of original sin”, which the Orthodox take issue with.
 
^^ Good post; the only thing is, the dogma of the Immaculate Conception doesn’t just say that Mary was sinless/immaculate, but that she was conceived without “stain of original sin”, which the Orthodox take issue with.
What does that mean? [without stain?] Doesn’t it simply mean without the “blemish” of sin? As in the OT sacrificial lambs? Maybe the words vary, but the concept seems to be the same.
 
was sinless and immaculate…and that they hold it as a theologumena, which I have no idea what it means, I guess it’s not a dogma, but almost?
Immaculate is a Latin term, it means “free from macula” or spot free, the spot representing blame, it’s not really relevant to eastern thinking, some people may be misusing it in translation.

Theologumena are pious opinions, which as theories can be debated. People can hold to or discard these as it suits their present opinion or the strength of an argument.

Dogmas damn people…so there is a big difference.

Orthodox believe the Mary of Nazareth was a virgin ‘before, during and after her pregnancy’, which is where a lot of this sentiment arises. Critics long ago accused her of being a typical unwed mother of the day (one who slept around and couldn’t name the father in other words). These arguments were brought forth during the Arian controversy to sway the public over the issue of Jesus Christ’s divinity.

The Orthodox argued that Mary of Nazareth was a model of upright behavior. Hence the flowery language extolling her virtue.

The notion of extolling someone as “better” “stronger” “smarter” “braver” “purer” or “holier” doe not imply that God caused to conceive of any such person as “stronger” or “smarter” etc. The need to think of Saint Mary as conceived differently than others arises from the developing notions in the west about nature of original sin, the accompanying guilt and depravity which results. These ideas can be traced, I think, through Tertullian and Augustine to finally become accepted in the City of Rome later.

So again, the character of Saint Mary needed protection. Not from outsiders but from within the western church where the notions about original sin were evolving. She was in danger looking unworthy to bear God, in westerners eyes, because these people saw themselves and everyone around them equally unworthy to bear God.

In the east this was not a problem, because First Sin does not imply the same culpability in living persons.

The western Christians began to see her as necessarily teflon coated, so that original sin and it’s depravity and guilt that everyone shared did not stick to her. This is an example of predestination in western thinking, another gift of Augustine.

From an Orthodox standpoint, that was not necessary. Orthodox held that she was sinless from birth because she refused to sin.

The western church held that she was free of the culpability of original sin while everyone else was not. Orthodox view that she was free of culpability of the original sin because there is no culpability for that sin (First Sin) visited upon us. She is not an exception in that regard.

What is shared by all as a result of Adam’s Sin is a woundedness, and a mortality…making us vulnerable to sickness and to death.
Does the church discount messages because the era of revelation is closed? Or is there another reason?
The church fathers, especially the desert fathers warned against communication from the beyond, even if purportedly angels or saints.
 
Actually, He does…that’s why we need Confession prior to Communion…
If we received Christ’s body and blood the instant we had just finished confession and received forgiveness for our sins you might have a point.
AND, we are speaking a posteriori, AFTER the fact of His redemption, it probably wasn’t possible BEFORE His death & resurrection…which is when Mary took Him into herself
Enoch? Elijah? Elisha? Samuel? Daniel? David? Bezalel the son of Uri, the son of Hur, of the tribe of Judah? These men were arguably full of God’s Holy Spirit. In Bezazel’s case it is specifically stated.

John
 
Rejoice, O Virgin, Mother of God, Mary full of grace, the Lord is with thee. Blessed art thou among women and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, for thou hast born the saviour of our souls.
Apart from the obvious fact that I don’t think Mary CAN rejoice anymore (being dead), this version is without problems from my point of view 🙂

Not that I’m expecting it to mean anything to y’all though 😉
 
Apart from the obvious fact that I don’t think Mary CAN rejoice anymore (being dead), this version is without problems from my point of view 🙂

Wait! Do you mean that you don’t believe in the resurrection? Did you not celebrate Easter? I’m confused…:confused:

I mean, maybe Lutherans don’t believe in the Assumption, but at least in the resurrection, no? Otherwise, what’s the point of Easter?🤷

Not that I’m expecting it to mean anything to y’all though 😉
 
If we received Christ’s body and blood the instant we had just finished confession and received forgiveness for our sins you might have a point.
Enoch? Elijah? Elisha? Samuel? Daniel? David? Bezalel the son of Uri, the son of Hur, of the tribe of Judah? These men were arguably full of God’s Holy Spirit. In Bezazel’s case it is specifically stated.

This is precisely what I find interesting, in the cases of Enoch and Elijah, He took them up to Himself alive…I suppose that meant they didn’t sin…[that death didn’t apply to them?] The others were just as anyone else that the Spirit moves through. In Mary’s case, He became Incarnate…not quite same thing…and still she died…I can’t get over that! Why if she was full of grace? Hm, m…
I somehow had never heard that she had died…

John
 
I somehow had never heard that she had died…
Perhaps because the bible doesn’t mention Mary dying.

Of course, it also doesn’t mention St. James dying.
 
Apart from the obvious fact that I don’t think Mary CAN rejoice anymore (being dead), this version is without problems from my point of view 🙂

Not that I’m expecting it to mean anything to y’all though 😉
Hebrews 11:32 - 12:1
32 And what more shall I say? I do not have time to tell about Gideon, Barak, Samson, Jephthah, David, Samuel and the prophets, 33 who through faith conquered kingdoms, administered justice, and gained what was promised; who shut the mouths of lions, 34 quenched the fury of the flames, and escaped the edge of the sword; whose weakness was turned to strength; and who became powerful in battle and routed foreign armies. 35 Women received back their dead, raised to life again. Others were tortured and refused to be released, so that they might gain a better resurrection. 36 Some faced jeers and flogging, while still others were chained and put in prison. 37 They were stoned [f]; they were sawed in two; they were put to death by the sword. They went about in sheepskins and goatskins, destitute, persecuted and mistreated— 38 the world was not worthy of them. They wandered in deserts and mountains, and in caves and holes in the ground.
39 These were all commended for their faith, yet none of them received what had been promised. 40 God had planned something better for us so that only together with us would they be made perfect.
1 Therefore, since we are surrounded by such a great cloud of witnesses, let us throw off everything that hinders and the sin that so easily entangles, and let us run with perseverance the race marked out for us.
After describing what they did while they were on earth, the author of Hebrews speaks of them in the present tense as “witnesses”.

If they can witness now (by “now” I mean after their death/dormition, but before the end of the world) why can they not also rejoice now?
 
Hebrews 11:32 - 12:1

After describing what they did while they were on earth, the author of Hebrews speaks of them in the present tense as “witnesses”.

If they can witness now (by “now” I mean after their death/dormition, but before the end of the world) why can they not also rejoice now?
Do some Christians believe that we are in a state of “suspension” until the Last Judgment Day? I never noticed that before. Maybe it’s our Purgatory that prevents us from this view? Since we intercede for them and ask them to intercede for us…

I had a conversation once with an Adventist who did believe in a “sheol-like” state after death until the end of times…but thought that was unique to them, since they are so similar to Judaism in most things [as the Sabbath and the food regulations].
 
Apart from the obvious fact that I don’t think Mary CAN rejoice anymore (being dead),
“Although concerning the saints we concede that, just as, when alive, they pray for the Church universal in general, so in heaven they pray for the Church in general, albeit no testimony concerning the praying of the dead is extant in the Scriptures, except the dream taken from the Second Book of Maccabees, 15, 14.”
Also, although not all of the early church fathers considered Maccabess to be part of the Old Testament, and thus it might not convince those who are not already convinced, I think it’s worth quoting:
When he had armed each of them, not so much with the safety of shield and spear as with the encouragement of noble words, he cheered them all by relating a dream, a kind of vision, worthy of belief.
What he saw was this: Onias, the former high priest, a good and virtuous man, modest in appearance, gentle in manners, distinguished in speech, and trained from childhood in every virtuous practice, was praying with outstretched arms for the whole Jewish community.
Then in the same way another man appeared, distinguished by his white hair and dignity, and with an air about him of extraordinary, majestic authority.
Onias then said of him, “This is God’s prophet Jeremiah, who loves his brethren and fervently prays for his people and their holy city.”
  • 2 Maccabees 15:11-14
 
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