On Mary: Similarities & Differences between the Orthodox & the Catholics

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This is precisely what I find interesting, in the cases of Enoch and Elijah, He took them up to Himself alive…I suppose that meant they didn’t sin…[that death didn’t apply to them?] The others were just as anyone else that the Spirit moves through. In Mary’s case, He became Incarnate…not quite same thing…and still she died…I can’t get over that! Why if she was full of grace? Hm, m…
I somehow had never heard that she had died…
Luke 2
25 And behold, there was a man in Jerusalem whose name was Simeon; and this man was just and pious, awaiting the consolation of Israel, and [the] Holy Spirit was upon him. 26 And it was divinely communicated to him by the Holy Spirit, that he should not see death before he should see [the] Lord’s Christ. 27 And he came in the Spirit into the temple; and as the parents brought in the child Jesus that they might do for him according to the custom of the law, 28 he received him into his arms, and blessed God, and said, 29 Lord, now thou lettest thy bondman go, according to thy word, in peace; 30 for mine eyes have seen thy salvation, 31 which thou hast prepared before the face of all peoples; 32 a light for revelation of [the] Gentiles and [the] glory of thy people Israel.
According to tradition, Simeon was centuries old, being one of the 72 scribes who translated the Old Testament into Greek. Obviously God can preserve anyone He wishes for as long as He wants, even indefinitely.

John
 
Wait! Do you mean that you don’t believe in the resurrection? Did you not celebrate Easter? I’m confused…
Indeed I did celebrate Easter. And I do believe in the Resurrection of the body, as all Christians do.
But the Resurrection has not yet happened, and therefore the dead remain dead until the Last Day.
I mean, maybe Lutherans don’t believe in the Assumption, but at least in the resurrection, no? Otherwise, what’s the point of Easter?
Of course we do. And you’re right: There’d be no point at all in celebrating Easter if there was no Resurrection of the dead.
And of course, Mary WILL rise from the dead to be forever with Christ, as all believers will. What I’m saying is that I don’t think she has yet.
 
Indeed I did celebrate Easter. And I do believe in the Resurrection of the body, as all Christians do.
But the Resurrection has not yet happened, and therefore the dead remain dead until the Last Day.

Is this a common belief of Lutherans? I hadn’t met any Christians, other than Adventists, that had specifically told me they thought the resurrection is on the Last Judgment. And, in their case it is because they believe in the Jewish Sheol, as a slumber-place.

No wonder there would be no point in praying for the dead or asking for their intercession. I understand now.

Of course we do. And you’re right: There’d be no point at all in celebrating Easter if there was no Resurrection of the dead.
And of course, Mary WILL rise from the dead to be forever with Christ, as all believers will. What I’m saying is that I don’t think she has yet.
Needless to say, there are no Marian apparitions either…since she is dead. Wow…I can’t believe how sad this would make me. I never realized how important the “communion of the saints” concept is to me! Is this common among other denominations as well? Do you know?

Thanks for explaining this to me. I was clueless.
 
And of course, Mary WILL rise from the dead to be forever with Christ, as all believers will. What I’m saying is that I don’t think she has yet.
I understand what you’re saying, I just don’t understand how it can be reconciled with Hebrews 11:32 - 12:1.
 
I understand what you’re saying, I just don’t understand how it can be reconciled with Hebrews 11:32 - 12:1.
Or with Matthew 27:50-53And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit.
Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked, and the rocks were split, and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.
 
I understand what you’re saying, I just don’t understand how it can be reconciled with Hebrews 11:32 - 12:1.
I would only have a problem reconciling the view with the passage you mention if the words meant “since these witnesses are still alive to see our actions”, or “since these witnesses are still amongst us”, or something to that effect.
I, as you may have guessed ;), do not believe that is the intended meaning. The meaning:
“since the example they have set for us is clear in our memory” seems to be what is being said here.
 
Or with Matthew 27:50-53And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit.
Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked, and the rocks were split, and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.
Ok, fair enough, I forgot that one unique event. My bad 🙂
But it does not follow from that, that all subsequent dead people have already been resurrected. If you open a grave, you’ll find either a body or a skeleton (depending on how long it’s been there).

Our hope is not that this body of ours shall not die (although that is true for those who are here when Christ returns in glory!), nor that it shall rise immediately after our death. Our hope is, that on the Last Day, then we shall rise from the dead to be with Christ forever.
 
Is this a common belief of Lutherans? I hadn’t met any Christians, other than Adventists, that had specifically told me they thought the resurrection is on the Last Judgment. And, in their case it is because they believe in the Jewish Sheol, as a slumber-place.

It is the most widespread belief amongst those I know anyway. Some would say that the dead are in Heaven with God, but still - no one would ask them to offer intercessory prayers for us.
Sunflower15;5078733:
No wonder there would be no point in praying for the dead or asking for their intercession. I understand now.
:extrahappy:
Exactly! And I think you’re the first person I’ve talked to here who’s shown a kind of understanding of the viewpoint (one can definately understand a viewpoint without agreeing with it 🙂 )
Needless to say, there are no Marian apparitions either…since she is dead.
Bingo 🙂
Wow…I can’t believe how sad this would make me. I never realized how important the “communion of the saints” concept is to me! Is this common among other denominations as well? Do you know?
I’m not sure, but I think that the Anglo-Catholic (very high-church) part of the Anglican communion might share the RC view. And I’m pretty sure that the EO-churches share it. But as far as I know, “my” viewpoint is the viewpoint of all the churches that sprung from the Reformation.

I might be wrong though…I sometimes am 😛
Thanks for explaining this to me. I was clueless.
No worries! 🙂 Gaining a greater understanding of the viewpoints of brothers and sisters in Christ is one of the main reasons I’m here 🙂
 
Interesting, LutheranDK. I guess I had always taken the phrase “cloud of witnesses” in the sense of people who are witnessing (observing) our actions. But I can see how it would also make sense as (if you will) “a cloud of example givers” or “a cloud of martyrs”. I’d be fine with that interpretation.

Still, he does speak of them “surrounding us” – in the present tense, not the future tense.
But as far as I know, “my” viewpoint is the viewpoint of all the churches that sprung from the Reformation.
What about your own church?

“Although concerning the saints we concede that, just as, when alive, they pray for the Church universal in general, so in heaven they pray for the Church in general, albeit no testimony concerning the praying of the dead is extant in the Scriptures, except the dream taken from the Second Book of Maccabees, 15, 14.”
 
Or with Matthew 27:50-53And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit.
Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked, and the rocks were split, and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.
That is a very interesting verse; but I don’t think it’s really conclusive on this issue. Someone could say that these resurrected saints were like Lazarus and Tabitha (Dorcas), i.e. they came back from the dead, lived out the rest of their lives and then died again.
 
Interesting, LutheranDK. I guess I had always taken the phrase “cloud of witnesses” in the sense of people who are witnessing (observing) our actions. But I can see how it would also make sense as (if you will) “a cloud of example givers” or “a cloud of martyrs”. I’d be fine with that interpretation.

Still, he does speak of them “surrounding us” – in the present tense, not the future tense.
Because we have those examples now 🙂
What about your own church?

“Although concerning the saints we concede that, just as, when alive, they pray for the Church universal in general, so in heaven they pray for the Church in general, albeit no testimony concerning the praying of the dead is extant in the Scriptures, except the dream taken from the Second Book of Maccabees, 15, 14.”
Touché…
Actually, the Danish Lutheran Church is one of the few (if not the only one, I’m not sure!) of the Lutheran Church bodies that does not have the Book of Concord as a confessional canon (for historical reasons that I do not want to bore you with ), so technically, “my” church is not bound by th Book of Concord. 🤓

But un-technically (y’know what I mean 😉 ) your point is valid…and I can see a whole host of other issues opening up from that passage…

Hmmm…:hmmm:
 
So then, not a cloud of example-givers, but a cloud of examples?

Seems like kind of a stretch.
And I think it is a stretch, based on the context, to claim that they watch over us as witnesses to our actions 😉

I don’t see why it is a stretch?
 
Because we have those examples now 🙂

Touché…
Actually, the Danish Lutheran Church is one of the few (if not the only one, I’m not sure!) of the Lutheran Church bodies that does not have the Book of Concord as a confessional canon (for historical reasons that I do not want to bore you with ), so technically, “my” church is not bound by th Book of Concord. 🤓

The tricky part for us Catholics is that every time we seem to get close to understanding something about the Orthodox churches or the Protestant denominations [Reformers?] is that it’s as if we were pursuing the horizon, [the closer we get, the farther it goes away]…because there is always differences within themselves…for us, we look into the Catechism…if it’s not there, it’s probably not mandatory so it’s a non-issue. And, the thing is that it is so coherent, that if you agree with some of it, you probably agree by necessity with the rest of it!👍

But un-technically (y’know what I mean 😉 ) your point is valid…and I can see a whole host of other issues opening up from that passage…

Hmmm…:hmmm:
Yep…like Maccabees itself!
 
*“At the moment of death, each human person is judged by God based on his conduct in this life, and goes immediately to his reward or punishment. Moreover, at the end of the world, Jesus Christ will come again in glory to judge the living and the dead. At that time, God’s whole plan for the world shall be revealed, and his mercy and justice demonstrated.”[ewtn.com/faith/teachings/lastsum.htm]](http://www.ewtn.com/faith/teachings/lastsum.htm])

I had to go back to search for a quick summary of the resurrection according to Catholics…and went to ewtn’s website.

Now, do we undergo 2 judgments? And, how does that work? I mean if someone made it to Heaven, or Hell, will that person come back at the end of times for the Last Judgment again? I know I must be missing something important here… can anyone help?
 
Ok, fair enough, I forgot that one unique event. My bad 🙂
But it does not follow from that, that all subsequent dead people have already been resurrected. If you open a grave, you’ll find either a body or a skeleton (depending on how long it’s been there).
Who said having your soul united with your body was a requirement to see and hear and even speak? When God walked in the Garden of Eden before the fall He had no physical body. Angels have no physical bodies yet they have appeared as if they did, and looked, heard and spoke as if they did.

John
 
Dear sister Sunflower,
It seems the Assumption is no problem, as long as she did die prior to being assumed into Heaven…which makes NO sense, since we die only due to original sin…and the Immaculate Conception did NOT have the original sin…but who knows, if it makes sense to theologians, who am I to ask?:confused:

In addition, I have to say that I sincerely from the bottom of my heart cannot possibly understand why the Immaculate Conception would not be considered absolutely essential to our salvation…because of Jesus, not because of Mary, but because of the necessary elements on the part of Jesus’ human parent in order for salvation to be possible! Without the HS’s action in purifying Mary in TOTALITY as a vessel for the Incarnation, I truly don’t see how it would follow that Jesus is fully human and fully divine, and thus the “perfect solution” to our sinfulness - the perfect Savior and Redeemer.
I don’t know if anyone has told you yet (I have not read through the entire thread), but you are misrepresenting the Catholic dogma on the IC here. The dogma does NOT teach that Mary “did NOT have the original sin.” It simply teaches that Mary was preserved from the STAIN of original sin, the STAIN of original sin being defined as the SPIRITUAL CONSEQUENCES of original sin (i.e., loss of sanctifying grace, loss of original justice). The dogma does NOT teach in any way or form that Mary was preserved from PHYSICAL consequences of the original sin (i.e., death, illness, corruption). Here is an excellent explanation from the old Catholic Encyclopedia (1917):

The term conception does not mean the active or generative conception by her parents. Her body was formed in the womb of the mother, and the father had the usual share in its formation. The question does not concern the immaculateness of the generative activity of her parents. Neither does it concern the passive conception absolutely and simply (conceptio seminis carnis, inchoata), which, according to the order of nature, precedes the infusion of the rational soul. The person is truly conceived when the soul is created and infused into the body. Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin at the first moment of her animation, and sanctifying grace was given to her before sin could have taken effect in her soul… But she was not made exempt from the temporal penalties of Adam – from sorrow, bodily infirmities, and death.

In effect, the Grace Mary received at her conception is exactly the same Grace we receive at Baptism. In the same way that the Grace of Baptism does not preserve us from physical death and suffering, neither did the Grace Mary received at her conception preserve her from death and suffering.

Further, the dogma of the IC does NOT teach that Mary was preserved from the stain of original sin at the moment of her conception for the purpose of bearing Christ. That is a notion that many Latins have simply assumed. It might logically flow from the dogma of the IC, but not necessarily so, and the dogma, nor its apostolic constitution, makes such an assertion or comment. Eastern and Oriental Christians rather believe, on the testimony of a few Fathers in the early Church, that the specific Grace to be able to bear the FULL and UNVEILED divinity of Christ (different from the Grace of Baptism she received at her conception) was given to her at the Annunciation. IMO, it is this new and different Grace that she received at the Annunciation by which Mary’s virginity was miraculously preserved despite giving birth to our Lord, as unanimously taught by the Fathers of the Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear sister Sunflower,

I don’t know if anyone has told you yet (I have not read through the entire thread), but you are misrepresenting the Catholic dogma on the IC here. The dogma does NOT teach that Mary “did NOT have the original sin.” It simply teaches that Mary was preserved from the STAIN of original sin, the STAIN of original sin being defined as the SPIRITUAL CONSEQUENCES of original sin (i.e., loss of sanctifying grace, loss of original justice). The dogma does NOT teach in any way or form that Mary was preserved from PHYSICAL consequences of the original sin (i.e., death, illness, corruption). Here is an excellent explanation from the old Catholic Encyclopedia (1917):

The term conception does not mean the active or generative conception by her parents. Her body was formed in the womb of the mother, and the father had the usual share in its formation. The question does not concern the immaculateness of the generative activity of her parents. Neither does it concern the passive conception absolutely and simply (conceptio seminis carnis, inchoata), which, according to the order of nature, precedes the infusion of the rational soul. The person is truly conceived when the soul is created and infused into the body. Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin at the first moment of her animation, and sanctifying grace was given to her before sin could have taken effect in her soul… But she was not made exempt from the temporal penalties of Adam – from sorrow, bodily infirmities, and death.

In effect, the Grace Mary received at her conception is exactly the same Grace we receive at Baptism. In the same way that the Grace of Baptism does not preserve us from physical death and suffering, neither did the Grace Mary received at her conception preserve her from death and suffering. The Council of Trent specifically taught, in its decree on Original Sin, that Baptism makes us “pure, without stain…” And this is all that the dogma teaches with regards to Mary at her conception.

Further, the dogma of the IC does NOT teach that Mary was preserved from the stain of original sin at the moment of her conception for the purpose of bearing Christ. That is a notion that many Latins have simply assumed. It might logically flow from the dogma of the IC, but not necessarily so, and the dogma, nor its apostolic constitution, makes such an assertion or comment. Eastern and Oriental Christians rather believe, on the testimony of a few Fathers in the early Church, that the specific Grace to be able to bear the FULL and UNVEILED divinity of Christ (different from the Grace of Baptism she received at her conception) was given to her at the Annunciation. IMO, it is this new and different Grace that she received at the Annunciation by which Mary’s virginity was miraculously preserved despite giving birth to our Lord, as unanimously taught by the Fathers of the Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
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