Church Militant:A good point, but not so. The core that divides us is actuallly the error of Sola Scriptura, which is to some extent linked, but not for this discussion.Can you provide documentation from Vatican II?
Thanks for your responses.
After reading various responses to my questions, I think there is more that divides Evangelicals and Catholics than I had assumed. I actually don’t think Sola Scriptura is the key, but continue thinking it is the authority of Rome. But they are related.
On Vatican II, no I cannot. Can you? Is this correct?
The fact is that unlike n-C denoms we do not generally attempt to make statements as to the final end of any person. “Outside of saving grace” is not something that we are in a position to discern with respect to anyone but ourselves. There is always an open course to reconcilliation.I believe in all the teachings of the Catholic Church and I am quite satisfied with the Biblical teachings that have been offered in support of them. The problem with n-C religion is that they seem unable to draw valid, logical, conclusions from the Word of God. in so doing, I have concluded that the things the Catholic Church teaches make infinitely better sese than the teachings form outsider her.
Since Evangelicals draw most of the same conclusions regarding the Word of God as does the RC church, and you say the Evangelicals are "unable to draw valid, logical conclusions from the Word of God, would this mean that where we draw the same conclusions at the RC church, the RC church is also being invalid and illogical? I think the logic follow as such. If not, your first statement is incorrect.
You conclusion is badly flawed since there has been no refutation of Catholic beliefs that will cause such doubt. (And I think I have seen almost all of them.). Basically, in spite of some 500 years of efforts, our opponents have not produced a new arguments that have merit. All have been refuted and all again, nothing is new.
Actually, there is a lot that is new.
New documents (The Didache, Epistle of Barnabas, the Dead Sea Scrolls and others), rediscoved in the last two centuries. These support many Evangelical conclusions and have led to new arguments. For example, to give you a new argument, The Didache, the first Christian document after the Bible, provides a model for Christian practice that seems rather much like a low Anglican church and not at all like a modern RC church. If the modern RC church is the same as the Early church and no dogma has changed, why doesn’t the Didache sound very Roman Catholic (i.e. no Marian devotion whatsoever, no Pope, etc.)
We have more archeological evidence also, such as models of Early Church practice and art, which has implications for baptism and images (i.e. no prayers to the dead in the early church).
If I was a non-Catholic…I think the reverse would be the case and take the hint.

Are the moral failings of your own pastors and leaders evidence to indict the truths of Christianity that you believe? Why then do you use that same faulty measure to judge Catholic beliefs and leaders?
Actually, I do think that the moral failings of my pastors should be held against them, not for the truths that they share from the Bible, but sometimes for the interpretation of those truths. Since biblical exegisis requires the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, I think this is legitimate. So my question stands: doesn’t the relative holiness of the Pope and bishops affect their legitimacy in interpreting Scripture and tradition.
I agree, however, that truth itself doesn’t depend on the messenger or on the palatibility of the message.
The authority of the Pope and magisterium is Biblical and secured by the very promise of Christ Himself that the gates of hell shall not prevail against His church and there is absolutely no evidence that the incidents that you have cited have in any way affected the dogmatic truths of the Catholic faith. (Matthew 16:18)This is easy.
This is not so easy for me to accept. However, I am beginning to see that the whole issue of authority, at least for many RCs, depends particularly on their interpretation of these verses. Is that correct?
Why should I believe that these verses support the notion of a pope and the primacy of Rome when:
- The other apostles didn’t view Peter as the pope, and Paul even reproaches him in Galatians 2. Paul says Peter’s job was as an apostle to the Jews but Paul as an apostle to the gentiles. Which, historically, was more important?
- The Christian writers of the 1st century did not interprete these verses as the modern RC church does?
Thus, is there not a huge tautology in RC thinking regarding authority: Matt 16:18 says that the RC has authority, according to the RC church? I should trust their interpretation of these verses because they have the authority to interprete them, which is given in these verses?