H
hoosierdaddy
Guest
Jonathan>>You are correct, “It is written” was used literally and figuratively to the Sadducees and the Pharisees as well as the crowd (remember following the Law and the stoning incident in John?)
Also, what was Jesus referring to as being “written?”
He quoted from the Septuagint. Every Protestant scholar agrees on that. The Septuagint. What the Church uses for her OT. Which, contrary to your assertion, has those books in it which you call ‘apocrypha.’
Well, Jesus wasn’t quoting the NT because the NT was assembled by the Catholic Church in 382 AD as “official canon” which INCLUDED the deuterodcanonical books.
Hey Jonathan, I thought you would comment on all three of my answers but that’s ok. Maybe you just wanted my explanation and you’re satisfied with that. :thumbsup:
Thanks for enlightening me. I really had no idea about that. There has to be something more to it or else I would not have been taught that the Apocrypha (I’m not the only one to call it that) was uninspired. I was taught that in order for Scripture to be inspired (in the OT) it had to be written in Hebrew. I found some info here in regards to the Septuagint, etc.
christiancourier.com/articles/read/the_apocrypha_inspired_of_god
Here it says: There is abundant evidence that none of these books was ever received into the canon (that which conforms to “rule”) of the Hebrew Old Testament. Though they appear in the Septuagint (Greek Old Testament – known as LXX), that is not necessarily a reliable criterion. Professor G.T. Manley notes: “[These books] do not appear to have been included at first in the LXX [3rd/2nd centuries B.C.], but they found their way gradually into later copies, being inserted in places that seemed appropriate…” (The New Bible Handbook, Chicago: Inter-Varsity Press, 1962, p. 39).
Also on that site it says that the Apocrypha was written at a time when there was NO revelation from God. Between the time of Malachi and Jesus Christ there was no revelation given from God, yet this is the time when the Apocryphal books were written. This is a curious matter huh?
When Jesus said “it is written…” He was talking to satan. This is the only way that we can fight against the devil; with the Word of God. Rev. says that we overcome him by the Blood of the Lamb and the Word of our testimony (Scripture) but it doesn’t mention Tradition there.
Also, what was Jesus referring to as being “written?”
He quoted from the Septuagint. Every Protestant scholar agrees on that. The Septuagint. What the Church uses for her OT. Which, contrary to your assertion, has those books in it which you call ‘apocrypha.’
Well, Jesus wasn’t quoting the NT because the NT was assembled by the Catholic Church in 382 AD as “official canon” which INCLUDED the deuterodcanonical books.
Hey Jonathan, I thought you would comment on all three of my answers but that’s ok. Maybe you just wanted my explanation and you’re satisfied with that. :thumbsup:
Thanks for enlightening me. I really had no idea about that. There has to be something more to it or else I would not have been taught that the Apocrypha (I’m not the only one to call it that) was uninspired. I was taught that in order for Scripture to be inspired (in the OT) it had to be written in Hebrew. I found some info here in regards to the Septuagint, etc.
christiancourier.com/articles/read/the_apocrypha_inspired_of_god
Here it says: There is abundant evidence that none of these books was ever received into the canon (that which conforms to “rule”) of the Hebrew Old Testament. Though they appear in the Septuagint (Greek Old Testament – known as LXX), that is not necessarily a reliable criterion. Professor G.T. Manley notes: “[These books] do not appear to have been included at first in the LXX [3rd/2nd centuries B.C.], but they found their way gradually into later copies, being inserted in places that seemed appropriate…” (The New Bible Handbook, Chicago: Inter-Varsity Press, 1962, p. 39).
Also on that site it says that the Apocrypha was written at a time when there was NO revelation from God. Between the time of Malachi and Jesus Christ there was no revelation given from God, yet this is the time when the Apocryphal books were written. This is a curious matter huh?
When Jesus said “it is written…” He was talking to satan. This is the only way that we can fight against the devil; with the Word of God. Rev. says that we overcome him by the Blood of the Lamb and the Word of our testimony (Scripture) but it doesn’t mention Tradition there.