On subjugation and the Trinity

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“When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, so that God may be all in all.”
  • 1 Corinthians 15:28
I have been told that this verse refers to completion of Christ’s Sonship, and the Son coming to an end and ceasing to exist (provided to me by a modalist/sebellianist). Obviously Trinitarianism is not compatible with the idea that the Son will cease to exist after the final judgement. How should this verse be interpreted?
 
“When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, so that God may be all in all.”
  • 1 Corinthians 15:28
I have been told that this verse refers to completion of Christ’s Sonship, and the Son coming to an end and ceasing to exist (provided to me by a modalist/sebellianist). Obviously Trinitarianism is not compatible with the idea that the Son will cease to exist after the final judgement. How should this verse be interpreted?
I would say that at that time, the Divine Order will be restored, as it was before the Fall. It doesn’t mean that Christ will cease to exist. As always, read my disclaimer.
 
First, let us look at the full context:
1 Corinthians 15:
Code:
But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.  For since death came through a human being, the resurrection of the dead came also through a human being.
For just as in Adam all die, so too in Christ shall all be brought to life, but each one in proper order: Christ the firstfruits; then, at his coming, those who belong to Christ; then comes the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has destroyed every sovereignty and every authority and power.

For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be destroyed is death, “he subjected everything under his feet.” But when it says that everything has been subjected, it is clear that it excludes the one who subjected everything to him. When everything is subjected to him, then the Son himself will (also) be subjected to the one who subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all.

old.usccb.org/nab/bible/1corinthians/1corinthians15.htm
The passage describes God the Son dying as a human being to save humanity, and in his risen form, reassuring us of our resurrection from the dead; that in the process, God the Son will destroy all evil, even the evil of death itself.

When even death is subject to God the Son, God the Son will turn it all over to his Father. Paul’s letter to the Philippians clarifies why God the Son will do this:
Philippians 2:
Code:
Have among yourselves the same attitude that is also yours in Christ Jesus, Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped.  Rather, he emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, coming in human likeness; and found human in appearance,he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, even death on a cross.  

Because of this, God greatly exalted him and bestowed on him the name  that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bend, of those in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
old.usccb.org/nab/bible/philippians/philippians2.htm
God the Son emptied himself out of humility, out of obedience to the will of his Father, to complete the task handed to him by his Father, that of saving humanity. God the Father, in turn, exalted his Son above all things, decrying to all who are saved shall glorify Jesus Christ, our Lord.

Jesus, then turns the glorify back his Father, remaining voluntarily “subject” to his Father, as described in the letter to the Corinthians. God is the God of Glory and Might, and also the God of Humility; God is the God of all things, of “all and all”!
 
Hadock Bible Commentary on 1 Cor 15:28
Ver. 28. The Son also himself shall be subject to him. That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing. (Challoner)
 
“When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, so that God may be all in all.”
  • 1 Corinthians 15:28
I have been told that this verse refers to completion of Christ’s Sonship, and the Son coming to an end and ceasing to exist (provided to me by a modalist/sebellianist). Obviously Trinitarianism is not compatible with the idea that the Son will cease to exist after the final judgement. How should this verse be interpreted?
My view, which is controversial, is that there is a certain order within the Trinity. The Three Persons have the same Nature, so they are entirely equal as God. But according to procession, there is a certain order. The Son proceeds from the Father, so everything that He is as the Second Person, He owes to the First Person. And the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son, so everything that He is as a Person, He owes to the First and Second Persons.

In a sense, the Second Person is “subject to” the First Person, due to procession. But they are nevertheless co-equal as God.
 
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