A
AlbertBall
Guest
Dear me, got back and reread my post.Quite right! The double standard is shown in the two following scenarios:
A: Miracle X is incredibly unlikely.
B: How do you know; have you observed this?
A: No. But it has a 0.000000001% chance of being true.
B: But how do you know this?
A: Because I’ve never observed miracle X.
(1) All claims need evidence to support.
(2) I do not have evidence for my belief that miracle X did not occur.
(3) Therefore, I do not have support for my belief that miracle X did not occur.
(1) is inconsistent with assigning probabilities for events you do NOT observe above.
If claim 1 has 99.99999999999999999999999% chance of being correct and claim 2 has 0.000000000000000000000000001% change of being correct. Just because there is a 0.00000000000000000000000001% change of claim 1 being wrong, does not mean claim two is as valid as claim one! And does not show double standard when someone rejects claim 2 and accepts claim one!
Where did i mention miracles, where did i assign a probability to a specific claim, I DIDN’T! Hence why i used claim 1 and claim 2! Hence why i made up a scenario about “bill”. Can you PLEASE try and address the point instead making up what you want me to have said and arguing against that, there is a name of that its called A STRAW-MAN.