I
itinerant1
Guest
You are completely neglecting chronology, i.e. when the story was written, and who the intended audience was. Hence, it does not follow from the actual chronology that the serpent image was not known to the original audience of the text.That’s the anthropological interpretation. The image of the snake represents an evil intelligence,not just a cultural context. And anyway,the temptation to sin occured before the fall of man and before Adam and Eve had descendants,so the author of Genesis could not have used the image of the snake to represent pagan fertility cults,which came about only after the fall of man.
Furthermore, I did not say that the author of Genesis 3 was actually using the image as a representation of the fertility cults. You have misread what I said.
Again, I did not say the author was using the image in this manner.The author may have used the image of snake of fertility cults,since the cults were in effect serving Satan,but it does not follow that the image is intended to represent the fertility cults themselves.
Apocryphal writings are not necessarily a reliable source to what is known. Many O.T. apocrypha are very imaginative.Even if it is a figure or symbol (I believe it is),it still represents a real intelligence. I think that the author of Genesis did have more knowledge about the Fall,but left it out because he was writing for the people. There are other Hebrew books dealing with the Genesis story that go into greater detail.
The genus litterarium of the text gives the clue as to what is most likely.Satan is himself a snake,in the same sense that Jesus is the Lamb of God and bread from heaven. There’s no way to know if Satan did not appear as a snake.