On the Necessity of Proving Things

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Your statement is totally innacurate. Philosophical statements about the universe encompass much more than the moral realm. Also, atheists who believe there is no meaning, moral or otherwise, do make philosophical statements about the universe.

For example, to claim that matter and only matter exists is a strictly philosophical statement. It is not a scientific statement. In fact, it is called “metaphysical materialism.”
The claim by itself does not amount to philosophy. It does not show any pursuit of wisdom or truth. Philosophical thinking is contextual and elaborative. It does not just make simple statements presented as fact,it elaborates upon initial ideas and draws moral truths from them.
In addition, science cannot disprove causality. Causality in itself is beyond the scope of science, which is why Heisenberg’s denial of causality was a philosophical claim, albeit a false one.
Science substitutes “mechanisms” and processes in place of the power of God.
Science cannot research or investigate matter popping into existence out of nothing because science cannot investigate and quantify the “nothing”, which is same reason why science cannot prove or disprove Creatio ex nihilo.
Scientists do just what you say they cannot do.
Hence, my argument stands. And your objection fails again because you have not made the least effort to understand the difference between scientific knowledge and philosophic knowledge.
This isn’t about philosophical knowledge,it is about MN.
 
I know that philosophy encompasses much more than the moral realm. The claim that nature is all that exists is not by itself philosophical,any more than the claim that there is no God.
If you think said statements are not philosophical, just how then would you classify them? And what makes you think they are not philosophical statements? Most certainly, they are not scientific statements. I’m quite sure you have painted yourself into a corner.
 
The claim by itself does not amount to philosophy. It does not show any pursuit of wisdom or truth. Philosophical thinking is contextual and elaborative. It does not just make simple statements presented as fact,it elaborates upon initial ideas and draws moral truths from them.
To the contrary, people every day make philosophical statements though they may not be familiar with any philosophical system or methods of philosophical reasoning.

Moral truths or ethics is only one branch of philosophy. A philosopher need not treat of moral truths. He may specialize in other areas such as epistemology or ontology.
 
Cardinal Newman, in his series of lectures entitled “On the Idea of a University” explains the relation between the natural sciences and theology. Cardinal Newman correctly explains the proper limit of the natural sciences. Newman articulates the very same position I have been arguing in this thread against the inherently flawed and false view advocated by “anthony022071”.

Newman says,

"In Physics is comprised that family of sciences which is concerned with the sensible world, with the phenomena which we see, hear, and handle, or, in other words, with matter. It is the philosophy of matter. Its basis of operations, what it starts from, what it falls back upon, is the phenomena which meet the senses. Those phenomena it ascertains, catalogues, compares, combines, arranges, and then uses for determining something beyond themselves, viz., the order to which they are subservient, or what we commonly call the laws of nature. It never travels beyond the examination of cause and effect. Its object is to resolve the complexity of phenomena into simple elements and principles; but when it has reached those first elements, principles, and laws, its mission is at an end; it keeps within that material system with which it began, and never ventures beyond the “flammantia mœnia mundi.” It may, indeed, if it chooses, feel a doubt of the completeness of its analysis hitherto, and for that reason endeavour to arrive at more simple laws and fewer principles. It may be dissatisfied with its own combinations, hypotheses, systems; and leave Ptolemy for Newton, the alchemists for Lavoisier and Davy;—that is, it may decide that it has not yet touched the bottom of its own subject; but still its aim will be to get to the bottom, and nothing more. With matter it began, with matter it will end; it will never trespass into the province of mind. The Hindoo notion is said to be that the earth stands upon a tortoise; but the physicist, as such, will never ask himself by what influence, external to the universe, the universe is sustained; simply because he is a physicist.

“If indeed he be a religious man, he will of course have a very definite view of the subject; but that view of his is private, not professional,—the view, not of a physicist, but of a religious man; and this, not because physical science says any thing different, but simply because it says nothing at all on the subject, nor can do so by the very undertaking with which it set out. The question is simply extra artem. The physical philosopher has nothing whatever to do with final causes, and will get into inextricable confusion, if he introduces them into his investigations. He has to look in one definite direction, not in any other. It is said that in some countries, when a stranger asks his way, he is at once questioned in turn what place he came from: something like this would be the unseasonableness of a physicist, who inquired how the phenomena and laws of the material world primarily came to be, when his simple task is that of ascertaining what they are. Within the limits of those phenomena he may speculate and prove; he may trace the operation of the laws of matter through periods of time; he may penetrate into the past, and anticipate the future; he may recount the changes which they have effected upon matter, and the rise, growth, and decay of phenomena; and so in a certain sense he may write the history of the material world, as far as he can; still he will always advance from phenomena, and conclude upon the internal evidence which they supply. He will not come near the questions, what that ultimate element is, which we call matter, how it came to be, whether it can cease to be, whether it ever was not, whether it will ever come to nought, in what its laws really consist, whether they can cease to be, whether they can be suspended, what causation is, what time is, what the relations of time to cause and effect, and a hundred other questions of a similar character.”

Continue reading at The Newman Reader, Part 2, Lecture 7, Christianity and Science.
 
A fraction of a second after the beginning of the universe would still the beginning. The Big Bang cannot be demonstrated to have occured. And it is pointless to speak about measurements of time in regard to the universe,because there is no point of reference with which to measure time. Our measurements of time are based upon the revolutions of the earth,sun,and moon. Outside of that context,our measurements of time are meaningless,because the rest of the universe is not subject to the patterns or sequences of oue earth,sin and moon.
The fact that what occurred a fraction of a second after the big bang is beyond your knowledge does not mean that it is beyond the knowledge of humanity at large. The big bang theory predicts omni directional galactic redshift. Physical experience agrees with that prediction. The big band theory predicts a microwave background. Physical experience agrees with that prediction.

The reference we use to measure time is called Planck’s time, the time it takes a photon in a vacuum to travel Planck’s length, and the bench mark we use to measure time is called a Caesium Clock, which is billions of times more accurate than the revolutions of celestial bodies.

There are a number of well written books on this subject. I suggest you consult one or more of them before you make any more factual errors.
That they are incomplete is not the point. Scientific models of the conditions of the newly created universe are not based on anything that has been seen.
The microwave echo of the big bang was seen by Penzias and Wilson and since then the COBE probe has seen the microwave background in great detail. Galactic Red Shifts have been seen. The only context in which these phenomena can be understood is the inflationary model of the big bang.

Partical Colliders like the LHC can recreate the conditions that would have existed a fraction of a second after the big bang.
 
The fact that what occurred a fraction of a second after the big bang is beyond your knowledge does not mean that it is beyond the knowledge of humanity at large. The big bang theory predicts omni directional galactic redshift. Physical experience agrees with that prediction. The big band theory predicts a microwave background. Physical experience agrees with that prediction.

The reference we use to measure time is called Planck’s time, the time it takes a photon in a vacuum to travel Planck’s length, and the bench mark we use to measure time is called a Caesium Clock, which is billions of times more accurate than the revolutions of celestial bodies.

There are a number of well written books on this subject. I suggest you consult one or more of them before you make any more factual errors.

The microwave echo of the big bang was seen by Penzias and Wilson and since then the COBE probe has seen the microwave background in great detail. Galactic Red Shifts have been seen. The only context in which these phenomena can be understood is the inflationary model of the big bang.

Partical Colliders like the LHC can recreate the conditions that would have existed a fraction of a second after the big bang.
Excellent response, Moonstruck888. 👍
 
Why do some believe that things must be proven (rationally) in order be true?

I ask this question because I have come to a realization that every philosophy and worldview is founded on unproven ideas. It is kind of like geometry, I think. There are theorems which are proven truths. But these theorems are based on “unproven truths” called postulates. Every belief is based on unproven ideas, even empiricism.For this reason (including others), I accept neither materialism nor empiricism to be true. Immaterial things could be just like the “unproven truths” (Christianity holds some to be revealed) mentioned previously. Just because something isn’t proven (rationally) does not mean it isn’t true.

I think that there has been an unfortunate underestimation of intuition and other things excluding the intellect in many materialist and empiricist circles. Intuition is vital to any philosophy. Things must just be known. So, if this is the case, why should the revealed truths of Christianity be thrown away? Why can’t faith and reason work together? Why does the intellect and the intuition have to be separate in our search for Truth?
Some of the “revealed truths” of the Bible turned out to make false predictions (eg the genetic diversity predicted by the Flood story).

However you are correct – we know nothing, and there is no way to know anything. However, certain assumptions have proven to be very effective at predicting the things we will observe. Of course we can’t guarantee that, for example, stuff won’t start falling upwards tomorrow, but that doesn’t mean considering that possibility has any benefit.

Much as I dislike the necessity of postulates, there doesn’t seem to be any alternative. If you prefer, you can think of our statements as having an implicit (if postulates, then) before it, so that we can in fact make true statements.
 
Some of the “revealed truths” of the Bible turned out to make false predictions (eg the genetic diversity predicted by the Flood story).
Your meaning is unclear. The Flood story has nothing to say about genetic diversity. Genetics is a modern science, one completely unknown to the biblical writers. Also, the Bible does not teach science. The message of the Flood story is strictly theological and moral. It is a theological polemic against the Babylonian flood stories, especially the Epic of Gilgamesh.

Don’t worry about things ever falling up. The laws of nature are stable. That is one thing about creation that the Old Testament gives assurance. It is part of the Noaic polemic against the Babylonian’s false ideas about the gods who arbitrarily sent floods and other disasters to vent their capriciousness and anger on mankind.
 
Your meaning is unclear. The Flood story has nothing to say about genetic diversity. Genetics is a modern science, one completely unknown to the biblical writers. Also, the Bible does not teach science. The message of the Flood story is strictly theological and moral. It is a theological polemic against the Babylonian flood stories, especially the Epic of Gilgamesh.
Some people interpret the Flood story to be literal and historically accurate. Such people are wrong. What the flood story says about genetics, is how many of each type of animal was on the ark and that the others died, which with current knowledge about genetics means the flood story says something about genetic diversity – a bottleneck of 2 or 7 individuals, 4000 or so years ago. This makes verifiable predictions about what genetic diversity we should see, and the predictions are wrong. As you said, it is nothing more than a story, despite some treating it as revealed truth.
Don’t worry about things ever falling up. The laws of nature are stable. That is one thing about creation that the Old Testament gives assurance. It is part of the Noaic polemic against the Babylonian’s false ideas about the gods who arbitrarily sent floods and other disasters to vent their capriciousness and anger on mankind.
We assume that the laws of nature are stable. There is no way to prove it.
 
Some people interpret the Flood story to be literal and historically accurate. Such people are wrong. What the flood story says about genetics, is how many of each type of animal was on the ark and that the others died, which with current knowledge about genetics means the flood story says something about genetic diversity – a bottleneck of 2 or 7 individuals, 4000 or so years ago. This makes verifiable predictions about what genetic diversity we should see, and the predictions are wrong. As you said, it is nothing more than a story, despite some treating it as revealed truth.
First, I never said anything that would imply the Flood story “is nothing more than a story.” You have profoundly misinterpreted my post. I said the Deluge story is a theological polemic. I did not say which elements of the polemic are derived from historical fact. Furthermore, the Deluge story reveals many truths. The key to understanding those truths correctly lies in the ability to understand and appreciate the genus litterarium.

Second, you have involved yourself in a contradiction by saying that the Flood story is not literal and historical, but then you treat it exactly as if it were literal and historical. You can’t have it both ways.

BTW, how did kangaroos and polar bears get on the Ark?
 
First, I never said anything that would imply the Flood story “is nothing more than a story.” You have profoundly misinterpreted my post. I said the Deluge story is a theological polemic. I did not say which elements of the polemic are derived from historical fact. Furthermore, the Deluge story reveals many truths. The key to understanding those truths correctly lies in the ability to understand and appreciate the genus litterarium.

Second, you have involved yourself in a contradiction by saying that the Flood story is not literal and historical, but then you treat it exactly as if it were literal and historical. You can’t have it both ways.

BTW, how did kangaroos and polar bears get on the Ark?
It’s a proof by negation. You assume something you want to prove false to be true, then you show that assumption leads to a contradiction, which means it is false. That of course only applies to a literal interpretation.
 
Second, you have involved yourself in a contradiction by saying that the Flood story is not literal and historical, but then you treat it exactly as if it were literal and historical. You can’t have it both ways.
If P, then Q
~Q
Therefore, ~P

If the Flood story was meant to be literal and historical, then it has been falsified. That’s all I did.
 
If P, then Q
~Q
Therefore, ~P

If the Flood story was meant to be literal and historical, then it has been falsified. That’s all I did.
I think I am starting to catch on to your meaning.

One of the problems is that I treat the term “literal” differerntly than do most people. For me, a literal reading is one that correctly identifies and appreciates the literary genre of a text. Thus, if I take the Noah account as a theological polemic, I am reading it literally, even though it is not necessarily historical. As a theological polemic worked into a history of salvation, the Noah story is true. It teaches a number of theological and moral truths.

There are different ways of communicating truths. A story need not be historical in order for it to be true. Fundamentalists have a hard time with that fact.

It is a modern bias that says something must be historical in order for it to be true. However, the ancient Hebrews did not have our notion of history. They wrote very differently about historical matters. If they had had a more scientific notion of history, like Thucydides, then we would not have so much difficulty with interpretation.

Taking the Noah story as literal and historical, in the modern sense of those terms, creates innumerable problems. Just to mention a couple of problems, the Ark was not a sea-worthy vessel. It was shaped like a barge or a giant box. It’s dimensions, as recorderd are all symbolic numbers.

Also, there is no scientific evidence for a global deluge. In fact, there is geological evidence which conclusively disproves a global deluge. The global deluge in the Noah story is, rather, symbolic for God justice, which reaches to the ends of the earth.

In sum, the Noah story is true, yet it is not necessarily historical. The account has elements that are based in history, but it is not primarily an historical narrative. Does this mean that it is “just a story”? Not by any means. It teaches a number of profound theological and moral truths.

Science can help show that aspects of the Noah story are not literal-historical. What science can never do is show that the Noah story, when properly interpreted, is false or untrue.
 
Science can help show that aspects of the Noah story are not literal-historical. What science can never do is show that the Noah story, when properly interpreted, is false or untrue.
The problem with this is you can also say that “Lord of the Rings” has equal weight to the bible as it has many moral and social issues and guidance in it. It is of course, not litteral-historical, but the there are truths in it (friendship, loyalty, standing against injustice and evil is a good thing, etc).

By stating that the Bible is not a literal-historical truth, then you are saying that the Bible is a work of fiction. This then raises the question of the existance of God: Is God just a fictional literary device?

It rasises the unconfortable (for believers) question of wheter or not God is real or fiction.

Actually, this sort of answers your initial question: “Why do some believe that things must be proven (rationally) in order be known as true?”

The answer is: To avoid ambiguity and unanswered questions.

If you don’t use rigourious methodolgy in determining if a question is true or not, then it leaves open the possiblity for anyone to indert the answer that suits them best. This ambiguity means that what you have is not a truth, but an oppinion.

Because you have taken the position that the bible is not a litteral-historical truth, it leaves open any work that is not a litteral-historical truth to be substituted as equally “true” according to your criteria and “Lord of the Rings” has equal footing in that respect.

In another thread I described waht I meant by evidence: That it is a methodolgy to differentiate which of several positions are true or not. If you argue a point, but the arguments you give allow someone to reach a different (or even contradictory) conclusion than you do, you really haven’t successfully argued your point.

As a better example:

In the Bible the first commandment is: You shall have no other Gods before me.

Now, for the sake of argument we will take that as true. But, imagine you are discussing God with someone and you putforward an argument that they should belive in your God. But, because you don’t use arguments that preclude other Gods from being worshiped, or that they argumentsd don’t properly describe your God, the person you are discussing this with ends up believing in the wrong (or false) God.

So, even if you accept the Bible as truth, you are under a form of obligation to make sure that you pass of the belief in the correct God, and the only way you can do that is to use a rigiours methodology that eliminate the posibility of a mistake.

That is: That things must be proven (rationally) in order be known as true?
 
The problem with this is you can also say that “Lord of the Rings” has equal weight to the bible as it has many moral and social issues and guidance in it. It is of course, not litteral-historical, but the there are truths in it (friendship, loyalty, standing against injustice and evil is a good thing, etc).

By stating that the Bible is not a literal-historical truth, then you are saying that the Bible is a work of fiction. This then raises the question of the existance of God: Is God just a fictional literary device?

It rasises the unconfortable (for believers) question of wheter or not God is real or fiction.

Actually, this sort of answers your initial question: “Why do some believe that things must be proven (rationally) in order be known as true?”

The answer is: To avoid ambiguity and unanswered questions.

If you don’t use rigourious methodolgy in determining if a question is true or not, then it leaves open the possiblity for anyone to indert the answer that suits them best. This ambiguity means that what you have is not a truth, but an oppinion.

Because you have taken the position that the bible is not a litteral-historical truth, it leaves open any work that is not a litteral-historical truth to be substituted as equally “true” according to your criteria and “Lord of the Rings” has equal footing in that respect.

In another thread I described waht I meant by evidence: That it is a methodolgy to differentiate which of several positions are true or not. If you argue a point, but the arguments you give allow someone to reach a different (or even contradictory) conclusion than you do, you really haven’t successfully argued your point.

As a better example:

In the Bible the first commandment is: You shall have no other Gods before me.

Now, for the sake of argument we will take that as true. But, imagine you are discussing God with someone and you putforward an argument that they should belive in your God. But, because you don’t use arguments that preclude other Gods from being worshiped, or that they argumentsd don’t properly describe your God, the person you are discussing this with ends up believing in the wrong (or false) God.

So, even if you accept the Bible as truth, you are under a form of obligation to make sure that you pass of the belief in the correct God, and the only way you can do that is to use a rigiours methodology that eliminate the posibility of a mistake.

That is: That things must be proven (rationally) in order be known as true?
Thanks for the PM about your post. I am not getting email notifications like the system is supposed to do. In any case, I don’t have time to respond to your post right now. I will be able to reply late Saturday or sometime Sunday. I’m making a note to myself.

Till then, take care.
 
If P, then Q
~Q
Therefore, ~P

If the Flood story was meant to be literal and historical, then it has been falsified. That’s all I did.
hey you guys, sorry to jump in, I have just two cents if you dont mind!

So- a girlfriend and I were doing a research paper for Ethnic Studies and we chose to do it on Hispanics (Mexicans) and Chicanos and the history/reason between the cultural differences barriers etc- SO, we had to start at the beginning…

We started with the Mayans and Aztecs…

I learned that, the Mayans, believed that the world - oh here I still have it saved -
Much like the Mayans, the Aztecs believed the universe had been created five times and destroyed five times, each of these eras being called a ‘Sun’. The first age was called the Four Ocelot in which the world was destroyed by jaguars. The second age, the Four Wind, men were turned into monkeys and the world was destroyed by hurricanes and tempests. The third age, the Four Rain, was destroyed by a rain of fire.** The fourth age, the Four Water, was destroyed by a flood. **The fifth age, the era that we live in now, was prophesized to be destroyed by earthquakes.
I dont believe the worlds going to end in 2012, but, I do think its interesting that their recorded history, or their perception of history, kind of goes hand in hand with science and even christianity…

Right?? We know there’s been what? 7 ice ages or something? And theres some sort of connection between ourselves and chimps…and then we have our perception or recording of a ‘flood that wiped out the world’…and is it not possible?? I mean, they say at one time all the continents were connected…and the deserts are scattered with sea shells. I would think, that back then, if a major flood were to happen- to them, without an overview of how big the world REALLY is, it would have wiped out ‘the world’ you know what I mean??
 
The problem with this is you can also say that “Lord of the Rings” has equal weight to the bible as it has many moral and social issues and guidance in it. It is of course, not litteral-historical, but the there are truths in it (friendship, loyalty, standing against injustice and evil is a good thing, etc).

By stating that the Bible is not a literal-historical truth, then you are saying that the Bible is a work of fiction. This then raises the question of the existance of God: Is God just a fictional literary device?
Sorry to say, but your argument is a text-book example of a straw-man fallacy.

Nowhere did I say that the Bible is not literal-historical truth. What I said is that the literary genre of the Deluge story is not necessarily literal-historical. It is a theological polemic worked into the salavation history of the Jews.

I also said the ancient Hebrews did not think of or write history the way we do. I noted that the manner in which Thucydides wrote history was more scientific. This is just a fact about ancient Hebrew culture that is above dispute. Consult any reputable bible scholar. I will be glad to recommend resources.

Next, it does not follow that if a text is not literal-historical then it is fiction. Your statement is not logically or literarily sound. For example, a parable is not necessarily historical. Do you think then if it is said that a biblical parable is not historical then one is implying that it is not true and a mere fiction? On the other hand, if you think a parable must be literal-historical then you have involved yourself in a blatant contradiction about the literary nature of a parable.

Many people, especially in modern times, have an unwarranted bias for the literal and historical as if that is the only way, or even the best way, to convey fact or truth. This is just a modern prejudice of those who do not understand how literature works, how diverse literary genres work. The Bible contains many types of literary genres. Understanding the literary genre of a text, and how it works, is the key to unlocking the message being conveyed.

In addition, the most profound truths cannot be expressed in literal terms. Plato understood well this fact, a truth which moderns uncultivated in literature have yet to learn. Plato called philosophizing tragic because whoever philosophizes is always forced back upon myths, *because *no ‘purely’ philosophical interpretation of the world could ever be complete and pursued to the point at which it formed a perfectly closed circle.

Hence, Plato taught very profound truths using myths. “Myth” in this sense does not mean something that is not true, as we often use the word today when we might say “That is just a myth”.

The Bible in many places uses allegories and other figurative language. Oftentimes figurative (non-literal) language better conveys a truth than does the literal, scientific, or historical. Some truths, especially regarding spiritual realities, can only be expressed in figurative language. The “Apocalypse” or “Revelations” is replete with symbolism and other figurative expressions.

Figurative language cannot necesarily be re-stated in literal terms without losing something of its meaning. We often ask “what” a text means. This can be the wrong question to ask. The proper question for some literary genres is “how” does this mean. The meaning is not independent of the particular way the author used his words to convey his message. You cannot take the dancer out of the dance.

In sum, I suggest you re-think and re-state your argument, if you still have one, because nowhere did I claim that the Bible is not literal-historical. Literal-historical texts are found in the Bible, but so are many are literary genres. This is an undeniable fact. It’s all about identifying the *genus litterarium, *and fully appreciating how it functions to convey the author’s message.
 
Sorry to say, but your argument is a text-book example of a straw-man fallacy.

Nowhere did I say that the Bible is not literal-historical truth. What I said is that the literary genre of the Deluge story is not necessarily literal-historical. It is a theological polemic worked into the salavation history of the Jews.
First of all, I’m not talking about truth here, but reality.

Fiction is a work that is not dealing reality, where as non fiction is a work dealing with reality.

When you were talking aobut the Ark (“Just to mention a couple of problems, the Ark was not a sea-worthy vessel. It was shaped like a barge or a giant box. It’s dimensions, as recorderd are all symbolic numbers.”), you indicated that you didn’t think the Ark was a story based in reality. Therefore you indicated that you thought the story of the Ark (although holding some religious truths) was a work of Fiction.

Therefore it is not a strawman to argue that you were saying that you thought the bible was not based in reality and was a work of fiction. What I whent on to say is that if any part of the bible can be considdered as a work of fiction, you have to question that all of it could be (this does not say that it is all a work of fiction, but that it might be).

It means that if you pick a part of it to be considdered a work of non-fiction, you have to provide reasions as to why you think one part is fictional (ie not based on reality) and an other part is non-fictional.

To do otherwise is called cherry picking and is a logical fallacy.
I also said the ancient Hebrews did not think of or write history the way we do. I noted that the manner in which Thucydides wrote history was more scientific. This is just a fact about ancient Hebrew culture that is above dispute. Consult any reputable bible scholar. I will be glad to recommend resources.
Either something is real or it isn’t. Reality is not something that has degrees of existance (remember I am discussing reality, not truth).
Next, it does not follow that if a text is not literal-historical then it is fiction. Your statement is not logically or literarily sound. For example, a parable is not necessarily historical. Do you think then if it is said that a biblical parable is not historical then one is implying that it is not true and a mere fiction? On the other hand, if you think a parable must be literal-historical then you have involved yourself in a blatant contradiction about the literary nature of a parable.
Again, reality is an all or nothing proposition. So if a story is not real, then it is not real and is a work of fiction.

There is a branch of literature called “historical Fiction”. Although these stories are based on historical events, these stories and what occurs are not real and therefore a work of fiction (that is why they are called fiction).
Many people, especially in modern times, have an unwarranted bias for the literal and historical as if that is the only way, or even the best way, to convey fact or truth. This is just a modern prejudice of those who do not understand how literature works, how diverse literary genres work. The Bible contains many types of literary genres. Understanding the literary genre of a text, and how it works, is the key to unlocking the message being conveyed.
Fact and Truth are not the same thing. Something can be true even if it is not a Fact. For instance “Justice” you can examine the univiers in the most minute detail and you will not find a single particle of justice. So justice does not have a factual existance, but it is true that justice exists none the less.
In addition, the most profound truths cannot be expressed in literal terms. Plato understood well this fact, a truth which moderns uncultivated in literature have yet to learn. Plato called philosophizing tragic because whoever philosophizes is always forced back upon myths, *because *no ‘purely’ philosophical interpretation of the world could ever be complete and pursued to the point at which it formed a perfectly closed circle.
Yes these are called analogies. But this does not address the questions I asked: If there are passages in the bible that are not based on reality, then what in the bible is based on reality? And does this mean that God is not real (or is He an analogy - for a parent maybe)?
Hence, Plato taught very profound truths using myths. “Myth” in this sense does not mean something that is not true, as we often use the word today when we might say “That is just a myth”.
I understand that a truth can be expressed as a parable or fictional story, but Lord of the Rings can also be seen in that light (a parable how friendship and loyalty can overcome great adversity), but that does not mean that Frodo really exists.

And this is the core of the questions I am asking.

I can accept God as an analogy and as a fictional construct, and that the lessons learned from the stories in the bible have some teaching value, but none of that means that GOd has to exist and that I have to worship Him or believe that He is real.

There are many good things to learn from the bible, but there are also many bad things to learn form it too (for on: that Genocide is acceptable - Joshua chapter 10). So even as a “figurative” work, the morality it conveys can be somewhat questionable. Just because something is true, does not make it good or right.

to be continued…
 
continuation…
The Bible in many places uses allegories and other figurative language. Oftentimes figurative (non-literal) language better conveys a truth than does the literal, scientific, or historical. Some truths, especially regarding spiritual realities, can only be expressed in figurative language. The “Apocalypse” or “Revelations” is replete with symbolism and other figurative expressions.
I have never denied that therea re truths in the bible, but what I question is the reality of it and therfore the reality of God.
Figurative language cannot necesarily be re-stated in literal terms without losing something of its meaning. We often ask “what” a text means. This can be the wrong question to ask. The proper question for some literary genres is “how” does this mean. The meaning is not independent of the particular way the author used his words to convey his message. You cannot take the dancer out of the dance.
I understand this, but you have missed the “truth” of what I was asking.
In sum, I suggest you re-think and re-state your argument, if you still have one, because nowhere did I claim that the Bible is not literal-historical. Literal-historical texts are found in the Bible, but so are many are literary genres. This is an undeniable fact. It’s all about identifying the *genus litterarium, *and fully appreciating how it functions to convey the author’s message.
Ok, I’ll restate it:

What in the bible is a statement about Reality and what eveidence do you have to support that conclusion (and remember evidence is data or argument that diferentiates one position from the other - in this case it is differentiation the parts of the bible that are reality and the parts that are not).
 
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