On the third day he arose...confusion

[Tasha]

I had a question asked of me and I wasn’t sure I answered it right and I couldn’t find it here on the forums. If Jesus died on Friday at 3:00 PM and arose from the dead on Sunday at 3:00 AM, isn’t that only 1 and a half days and not 3? I said He was dead on part of Friday, all of Saturday and partly on Sunday, so it’s not the actual hours, but that He was dead on those three days- even if it doesn’t add up to 72 hours. I know this isn’t a big deal but I’d like to understand it correctly. Anyone?

Thanks,

Tasha

 

[LilyM]

You’ve got it exactly right - a day in this case doesn’t refer to a twenty-four hour period, rather a calendar day or part of one.

So Friday is the first day, Saturday the second, Sunday the third.

 

[Tasha]

Thank you, Lily! I got my answer in 9 minutes, that’s wonderful. I also thought maybe the answer had to do with the Jews counting differently, such as maybe by sundown a new day started. But that’s probably way off the mark.

 

[leonie]

catholic-convert.com/Portals/0/Documents/3Days3Nights.doc

excerpt from Steve Ray’s website

First, it appears that this expression is another way of stating “on the third day” or “in three days.” This can be illustrated from 1 Samuel 30:1213. The same Greek expression is found in 1 Samuel 30:12 in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) as in Matthew 12:40. Verse 13 refers to this three-day and three-night period as “three days ago” or, as the LXX literally states, “the third day today.” If “three days and three nights” can mean “on the third day,” there is no major problem in our passage. By Jewish reckoning Jesus could have been crucified on Friday and raised on Sunday, the third day. Friday afternoon = day one; Friday 6 PM to Saturday 6 PM = day two; Saturday 6 PM to Sunday 6 PM = day three.’

A second argument against a literal temporal interpretation is the fact that Matthew did not see any conflict between this expression and either a third-day resurrection (Matt. 16:21; 17:23; 20:19) or a Friday crucifixion and Sunday resurrection scheme (Matt. 27:62; 28:1). For him, as well as for the other Evangelists, expressions such as “three days and three nights,” “after three days,” and “on the third day” could be used interchangeably.

Finally, it should be pointed out that the main point of Jesus’ analogy in Matthew 12:40 does not involve the temporal designation but the sign of the resurrection. Only one miracle or sign will be given to this evil and adulterous generation. That sign will be Jesus’ resurrection from the dead. The temporal designation is much less significant. Perhaps Jesus refers to three days and three nights because this expression is found in the Old Testament passage which he wants to quote (Jonah 1:17).

 

[Lev23]

Thank you, Lily! I got my answer in 9 minutes, that’s wonderful. I also thought maybe the answer had to do with the Jews counting differently, such as maybe by sundown a new day started. But that’s probably way off the mark.

I wouldn’t say you are off the mark. Google “onah” for the better explanation for this.