M
mercygate
Guest
One more time for those who missed it earlier:
itsjustdave1988.blogspot.com/2005/04/upon-this-rock-is-rock-of-matt-1618.html
itsjustdave1988.blogspot.com/2005/04/upon-this-rock-is-rock-of-matt-1618.html
I see what you are saying; thank you.From the contexts and the way Peter was regarded since within the early Church, he had clear primacy among the apostles. He was indeed flawed and clumsy, but the primacy was clearly there. This primacy, however, is not sufficient to prove the present-day Papacy. To do that, we Catholics have to prove the validity of Apostolic Succession and the succession of this primacy given to Peter. This thread only concerns Peter’s primacy based on his name. The NT and history clearly establishes that.
Apart from the glaring error in the logic here (if it’s true for modern French, of course it must be true for C1st Greek - how could it not be?), you are arguing that gender form does not indicate gender, which directly contradicts your later assertion that Kephas could not be “Petra” because “petra” is a feminine form. To which would you prefer to hold?An automobile sounds masculine but it is feminine Le Auto or in French L’auto. Le is feminine and La masculine so that’s NOT at all a problem in Greek either.
As popular a belief as this is, it is fundamentally incorrect. While Gospels were written in Greek, the majority of the conversations described therein were presumably conducted in Aramaic. To understand the spoken words, we would have to go back to the Aramaic, an exercise which would require compounded assumptions. To understand the text, we have to read it. The text is not the words that were spoken, and fully understanding one (were that even possible) would not mean fully understanding the other.Jesus was NOT a native Greek-speaker so to fully understand the Scriptures we have to go back to the original languages spoken in that time period in order fully understand what was being said, right?
You are evidently confusing “lithos” with “petros”. “lithos” has a much broader meaning, covering everything from the stones thrown by warriors to the stones used for building to stone as a material substance. The likely reason that Kephas did not call himself “lithos” is the fact that “lithos” could be used as a pejorative (q.v. Aristophanes, Clouds, l.1202).And lithos means what? Pebble so the Greek would have used lithos in order to show Peter was the pebble right? … Again lithos means pebble or small rock.
As noted elsewhere in the thread, “petros” is usually but not always masculine, “lithos” likewise: the Greeks were more flexible about gender than I had initially estimated. I have also learnt that the usage of common nouns as names for people is not as unusual as I had thought, but was more common with women’s names than with men’s (thanks, Dr. McK).The reason that the term is rendered as “Petros” (rather than “Petra”) in regard to Peter is because it is a man’s name!..And one could not call Peter “Petra” without making him feminine!![]()
Again, as noted elsewhere in the thread, the question is not why “petros” was used in Mt 16:18. That had to be used, because it was already known as the apostle’s name. The question is why “petra” was used, and the most probable answer presented thus far is that it was used to show both the connection and the difference between the entity formerly known as Simon and the entity upon which Christ would build.the only way to render “petra” / “rock” as a man’s NAME would be “Petros” or “Petrus.” “Petra” was not an option.
I told you in my original post in this thread I was not qualified to discuss this subject. I think I have proven that now.We could chase this around all week, but I think that there are some things that ought to be noted: