I think it depends on how much time passed between the first and second marriage.
???
No, that’s not relevant. (Any other attempts at marriage in the time between the two ‘weddings’ might be, though!)
There are many many issues that you don’t mention in your question, and they come into play when attempting to answer your question. First off, it’s necessary to ask about
all marriages for this couple, and all marriages for their respective spouses (and their respective spouses, etc, etc, etc).
Second, we might want to ask about the details and the timeline your friend’s (and his first wife’s) religious affiliations. Is he a baptized Catholic? As a child? Her too?
Third, we might want to ask about the timing of his first wife’s ‘conversion’ away from Catholicism? Interestingly enough, the point in time – and the facts of what she did in order to ‘leave’ the Church – have a bearing on the answer.
The answer really does depend on a host of additional questions. Your friend should see a priest who is well-versed in the canon law of marriage.
However, one simple answer (and maybe even a correct one!) might be this:
if he needs an annulment from his first wife, and – all other things being equal – there is no additional relevant information that you haven’t presented, then if the first ‘wedding’ was valid, then the second one is irrelevant – the divorce didn’t ‘invalidate’ the marriage, so “one nullity.” On the other hand, if the first wedding wasn’t valid, then it’s possible that neither was the second, and therefore, “one nullity.”
There’s really too many unknowns to give you a definitive answer, however.
