The Church is clear that we obliged to pay our legally levied taxes. Catholics can protest how the money is spent, and can use the voting and legislation process to make changes.
Just to appease my own curiosity, supposing that one existed under the rule of a government which 1) offered no legitimate recourse for its crimes AND, 2) was committing grave atrocities, such as the typical “boogeyman” of Nazi Germany or the Soviet Union… in such a case, would the same thinking apply?
Another example I wonder about is the time when there were totalitarian Protestant monarchs that persecuted and murdered Catholics (not the same didn’t happen in reverse), but what would be the thinking there?
Finally, what about rebellion against tyranny? So, for example,the African freedom fighters who resisted colonial imperialism or the American revolution against Britain, etc?
Certainly it wouldn’t make much sense to say that a group of people could be justified in armed rebellion while at the same time they weren’t justified in withholding taxes, right?
Thank you for your information.
Also, I would like to read more about the Church’s interpretation of “Give to Caesar what is Caesar’s and to God what is God’s,” because I’m thoroughly confused as to how anyone interprets that as a
definitive statement. My intuition**** is that Jesus was being
purposefully ambiguous by saying that.
**** = and by no means am I saying that my intuition should be the arbiter of scripture, but rather, when my intuition clashes with the Church, I think I’m justified to inquire as to how the Church reached the opposite viewpoint. Coming to a better understanding of the Church’s position and why it reached that position could
never hurt, right?