S
Sacramentalist
Guest
According to Lumen Gentium: Dogmatic Constitution on the Church 25:
When we speak of a “universal” magisterium, is this a moral universaility or an absolute one? ANd where can I find documentation to clarify this?
Please, no one cite former-Cardinal Ratzinger’s response to Ordinatio Sacerdotalis, or his Commentary on the Profession of Faith, as these do not in fact answer this question, but just repeat what Lumen Gentium said.
Thanks!
How does this apply to individual doctrines, since it clearly is the case that there few doctrines, especially the more controverisal ones (like women’s ordination), where we can say all the world’s bishops are in agreement.Although the individual bishops do not enjoy the prerogative of infallibility, they nevertheless proclaim Christ’s doctrine infallibly whenever, even though dispersed through the world, but still maintaining the bond of communion among themselves and with the successor of Peter, and authentically teaching matters of faith and morals, they are in agreement on one position as definitively to be held.
When we speak of a “universal” magisterium, is this a moral universaility or an absolute one? ANd where can I find documentation to clarify this?
Please, no one cite former-Cardinal Ratzinger’s response to Ordinatio Sacerdotalis, or his Commentary on the Profession of Faith, as these do not in fact answer this question, but just repeat what Lumen Gentium said.
Thanks!