Z
zachh
Guest
I can’t remember where I read it, but somewhere someone said that Papal infallibility is only defined to be infallible on faith and morals to circumvent things like controversies over indulgences and such.
I know that indulgences wasn’t a doctorine, but where did the specific limitation of faith and morals come from?
I know that indulgences wasn’t a doctorine, but where did the specific limitation of faith and morals come from?