J
jnpl1185
Guest
I think some of the fundamental causes for disagreement between the two groups might help to be alleviated by coming to terms with the differences on the issue of what Original Sin really is and what Baptism really affords for us. As I understand it, Catholics view concupiscence as something separated from Original Sin so that Concupiscence stays with Baptism and Original Sin goes and after Baptism there is nothing about humanity that is inherently repulsive to God. Is this right? If so, what is original sin ontologically speaking as it pertains to us, not to Adam? Even with the Catechism definition, I am having trouble wrapping my head around it, since the results of Original Sin are not the same as the deprivation itself caused by the Fall. How can we be washed of this deprivation of Original Sin and still be subject to its results?
CCC:
CCC:
Augsburg Confession:By his sin Adam, as the first man, lost the original holiness and justice he had received from God, not only for himself but for all humans. Adam and Eve transmitted to their descendants human nature wounded by their own first sin and hence deprived of original holiness and justice; this deprivation is called “original sin”. As a result of original sin, human nature is weakened in its powers, subject to ignorance, suffering and the domination of death, and inclined to sin (this inclination is called “concupiscence”).
Also they teach that since the fall of Adam all men begotten in the natural way are born with sin, that is, without the fear of God, without trust in God, and with 2] concupiscence; and that this disease, or vice of origin, is truly sin, even now condemning and bringing eternal death upon those not born again through Baptism and the Holy Ghost.
3] They condemn the Pelagians and others who deny that original depravity is sin, and who, to obscure the glory of Christ’s merit and benefits, argue that man can be justified before God by his own strength and reason.