M
manualman
Guest
OK folks, help me develop my comprehension here a bit.
As I understand it, we fallen humans have this inclination and attraction towards sin as a result of the Fall called concupiscence (sp?). As I understand it, catholic theology says the saved are not merely granted the righteousness of Christ via a divine legal manuever, but through Grace are genuinely remade and (eventually) sanctified so that on that day we actually enter heaven we will no longer even be INCLINED towards sin. The influence of original sin on us will be utterly gone. The idea of sinning will be as foreign to us as it is to God. Good so far?
So why is it that Jesus was tempted by the devil before beginning his public ministry. Yes, he resisted those temptations and did NOT turn the stones into bread, did not throw himself from the mountain to induce the angels to rescue him and did not sell out to the devil for worldly success and power. But Scripture says he was tempted, doesn’t it? If Jesus has no concupiscence, why was he tempted?
Or is the temptation Scripture refers to merely the ATTEMPT to tempt made by the devil and it never even remotely appealed to Jesus? (i.e. Jesus didn’t actually feel tempted) It’s kind of an importance difference and I want to make sure I have it right!
As I understand it, we fallen humans have this inclination and attraction towards sin as a result of the Fall called concupiscence (sp?). As I understand it, catholic theology says the saved are not merely granted the righteousness of Christ via a divine legal manuever, but through Grace are genuinely remade and (eventually) sanctified so that on that day we actually enter heaven we will no longer even be INCLINED towards sin. The influence of original sin on us will be utterly gone. The idea of sinning will be as foreign to us as it is to God. Good so far?
So why is it that Jesus was tempted by the devil before beginning his public ministry. Yes, he resisted those temptations and did NOT turn the stones into bread, did not throw himself from the mountain to induce the angels to rescue him and did not sell out to the devil for worldly success and power. But Scripture says he was tempted, doesn’t it? If Jesus has no concupiscence, why was he tempted?
Or is the temptation Scripture refers to merely the ATTEMPT to tempt made by the devil and it never even remotely appealed to Jesus? (i.e. Jesus didn’t actually feel tempted) It’s kind of an importance difference and I want to make sure I have it right!
